CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
प्रिय दोस्तो, जैसा कि आपको पता है कि CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam की डेट आ चुकी जिसका एग्जाम 4 फरवरी 2024 को होना है और बड़ी सूझ बूझ से तैयार करके Help2Youth आपके लिए इससे सम्बंधित बहुत ही महत्वपूर्ण प्रशन उत्तर लेकर आये है अगर यह प्रश्न उत्तर आपने पढ़ लिए है तो आप आसानी से यह एग्जाम पास कर सकते है इसमें आपको केटेगरी के अनुसार व सिलेबस के अनुसार प्रश्न उत्तर दिए गए है तो आइए CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes के बारे में पढ़ते है और अगर यह प्रश्न उत्तर आपको अच्छे लगे तो आप इसे शेयर भी कर सकते है
CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
नागरिक संसाधन सूचना विभाग हरियाणा ने ग्राम स्तर पर लोकल ऑपरेटर की वेकैंसी निकाली है जिसका अभी हाल ही 1st एग्जाम का रिजल्ट आया है जिसमे विभाग द्वारा 40 से ऊपर वाले सही कैंडिडेट्स का 2nd एग्जाम के लिये क्वालीफाई माना गया है जिसका दूसरा पेपर 4 फरवरी 2024 को होना है और कुछ कंडीडेट का एग्जाम HARTRON द्वरा 3 फरवरी को लिया जाएगा जिनकी लिस्ट नीचे दिए लिंक से प्राप्त कर सकते है उसके लिए आप नीचे दिए गए लिंक पर जाकर 29 जनवरी 2024 को अपना एडमिट कार्ड डाउनलोड कर सकते है
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| CRID Panchayat Local Operator Exam 4-2-24 | Download Now |
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2nd Phase Exam Schedule
नागरिक संसाधन सूचना विभाग ने दूसरे फेज के एग्जाम के लिए सिलेबस भी जारी कर दिया गया है उसी सिलेबस में से ही यह एग्जाम आयेगा और उसी के अनुसार ही (CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes)हमने यह नोट्स बनाये है
- परीक्षा तिथि: 04/02/2024 (4 फरवरी 2024 , रविवार
- परीक्षा का समय: दोपहर 12:00 बजे।
- परीक्षा की अवति: 90 मिनट
- परीक्षा कातरीका: ऑफ़लाइन मोड।
- परीक्षा केंद्र का स्थान: एडमिट कार्ड पर उपलब्ध होगा।
- कुल प्रश्न: 120 प्रश्न
- प्रश्न का प्रकार: चार विकल्पों और केवल एक सही विकल्प के साथ बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न (MCQ)।
- अतिकिम अंक = 120
- प्रत्येक प्रयास तकए गए सही उत्तर के लिये अंक= 1
- प्रत्येक प्रयास तकए गएउत्तर के लिए अंक = – 0.25 अंक (नकारात्मक 0.25 अंक)
- प्रत्येक गैर-प्रयास किये गए गलत प्रश्न के अंक= 0
2nd Phase Exam Syllabus
| MS Office | Internet/HTML/ DHTML |
| Window Computer Fundamental | Computer Networking |
| Project Management | Hardware Concept |
| Articial Intelligence | System Analysis Design |
CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
MS Office
Q: MS Word is an _________ software
a) Application
b) Compiler
c) System
d) Programming
Q: Which file starts MS Word?
a) winword.exe
b) word.exe
c) msword.exe
d) word200Q:exe
Q: What is the default font used in MS Word 2016 document or above?
a) Times New Roman
b) Arial
c) Calibri
d) Preeti
Q: What is the default extension for all Word documents?
a) txt
b) .word
c) .wrd
d) .docx
Q: What is the shortcut key to open the Open dialog box?
a) F12
b) Shift F12
c) Alt + F12
d) Ctrl + F12
Q: What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar?
a) 8 and 72
b) 8 and 64
c) 12 and 64
d) None of above
Q: In how many ways you can save a document?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Q: What is the shortcut for Spelling Check in MS Word document?
a) F7
b) Shift + F7
c) Ctrl + F7
d) Alt + F7
Q: Portrait and Landscape are__________ ?
a) Page Orientation
b) Page Size
c) Page Layout
d) All of above
Q: What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol?
a) Alt + Ctrl + C
b) Alt + C
c) Ctrl + C
d) Ctrl + Shift + C
Q: What is the minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word Table?
a) 1 and 1
b) 2 and 1
c) 2 and 2
d) None of above
Q: What is maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word Table?
a) 35
b) 15
c) 63
d) 65
Q:What is the shortcut key to open font dialog box?
a) Ctrl +F
b) Alt + Ctrl + F
c) Ctrl D
d) Ctrl + Shift + D
Q: What is the shortcut key for “Find and Replace” dialog box?
a) Ctrl + P
b) Ctrl + D
c) Ctrl + G
d) All of the above
Q: Bold, Italic, Regular are known as ?
a) Font Styles
b) Font Effects
c) Word Art
d) Text effects
Q: What is gutter margin ?
a) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing
b) Margin that is added to right margin when printing
c) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
d) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing.
Q: What is the maximum scale percentage available in MS Word?
a) 90
b) 100
c) 200
d) 500
Q: What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character?
a) 163
b) 1638
c) 16038
d) None of above
Q: What is the minimum font size you can apply for any character?
a) 0.1
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) None of Above
Q: In MS Word Thesaurus tool is used for ?
a) Spelling Suggestions
b) Synonyms words
c) Grammar Checking
d) Autocorrect Options
Q: How many row can you insert in a word document in maximum?
a) 256
b) 16384
c) 32768
d) 32767
Q: Select Help key in MS Word
(A) F11
(B) F2
(C) F1
(d) F5
Q: The term Color and pattern used to fill a closed shape is known as
(A) Fill Style
(B). WordArt
(C). Shape
(D). Fill Back
Q: For spell checkingwhich Function Key Will Press ?
(A) F5
(B) F7
(C) F6
(D) F8
Q: Microsoft Word is
(A). Word Processing programme
(B). Presentation programme
(C). Spreadsheet programme
(D). None of these
Q: Select maximum number of columns that insert in a word document
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 55
(D) 40
Q: From which menu you can insert Header and
Footer?
(A) Insert Menu
(B) View Menu
(C) Format menu
(D) Tools Menu
Q: Bullets and Numbering is in tab.
(A) Home tab
(B) Insert tab
(C) Pagelayout tab
(D) View tab
Q: The spelling tool is placed on toolbar
(A) Standard
(B) Formatting
(C) Drawing
(D) Reviewing
Q: Formatting a cell in Currency, you can specify
(A) Decimal Places
(B) Currency Symbol
(C) Both of above
(D) None of above
Q: Formatting a cell in Number format you can’tset
(A) Decimal Places
(B) Use 1000 separator
(C) Negative numbers
(D) Currency Symbol
Q: In a worksheet you can select
(A) The entire worksheet
(B) Rows
(C) Columns
(D) All of the above
Q: Microsoft Word is
(A). Word Processing programme
(B). Presentation programme
(C). Spreadsheet programme
(D). None of these
Q: The term Selecting text means, selecting what?
(A). an entire sentence
(B). whole document
(C). a word
(D). All of the above
Q: In MS-Word, the ruler used for?
(A). to set tabs
(B). to set indents
(C). to change page margins
(D). All of the above
Q: For to change character size and typeface Which menu in MSWord can be used
(A). Format
(B). Tools
(C). View
(D). Data
Q: For selected text in MS Word used what?
(A) Ctrl+shift+A
(B) shift+A
(C) Alt+shift+A
(D) None of these
Q: Short cut key to Apply bullet list in MS Word
(A) Ctrl+shift+L
(B) Alt+shift+A
(C) Ctrl+shift+A
(D) None of these
Q: Select short cut key Apply auto format in MS Word:
(A) Ctrl+shift+A
(B) Alt+shift+A
(C) Alt+Ctrl+K
(D) None of these
Q: Short cut key of Bold in Word
(A) Shift+B
(B) Alt+B
(C) Ctrl+B
(D) None of these
Q: for text cancel text in MS Word:
(A) ESC
(B) End
(C) Delete
(D) None of these
Q: Select the following we can be used as watermark in a word document
(A). Text
(B). Image
(C). Art
(D). None Both A and B
Q: Select the item show dimly behid the main text
(A). Watermark
(B). Background
(C). Water Color
(D). Back Color
Q: How to align paragraph in center in MS Word:
(A) Ctrl+O
(B) Ctrl+P
(C) Ctrl+F
(D) Ctrl+E
Q: Which short cut keyS are used for undo in MS Word?
(A) Ctrl+n
(B) Ctrl+Y
(C) Ctrl+z
(D) Ctrl+v
Q: Which keys are used in MS Word for opning a new doucment
(A) Ctrl+z
(B) Ctrl+v
(C) Ctrl+N
(D) Ctrl+Y
Q: How do you display current date only in MS Excel?
A. Date ()
B. Today ()
C. Now ()
D. Time ()
Q: In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed columns or rows?
A. $
B. *
C. %
D. ;
Q: Which of following is Not one of Excel’s what-if function?
A. Goal seek
B. Solver
C. Scenario manager
D. Auto Outline
Q: An Excel Workbook is a collection of ________
A. Workbooks
B. Worksheets
C. Charts
D. Worksheets and Charts
Q: What do you mean by a Workspace?
A. Group of Columns
B. Group of Worksheets
C. Group of Rows
D. Group of Workbooks
Q: MS-EXCEL is based on ________
A. WINDOWS
B. DOS
C. UNIX
D. OS/2
Q: Which of the following is not a term of MS-Excel?
A. Cells
B. Rows
C. Columns
D. Document
Q: A worksheet can have a maximum of ________ number of rows.
A. 256
B. 1024
C. 65535
D. 1048576 (in Verson 2007 and above)
Q: _____ is a presentation program.
(A) U-torrent
(B) Mozilla Firefox
(C) MS PowerPoint
(D) Slide Panel
Q: The PowerPoint view that displays only text (title and bullets) is
(A) Outline view
(B) Notes page view
(C) Slide sorter
(D) Slide show
Q: PowerPoint presentations are widely used as
A. Note outlines for teachers
B. Project presentations by students
C. Communication of planning
D. All of above
Q: Which of following are not PowerPoint views?
A. Page View
B. Print View
C. Normal View
D. Outline View
Q: To add a Header/Footer in Handout
A. View -> Page Setup
B. View -> Header/Footer
C. View -> Handout Master
D. None of Above
Q: Slide Transaction can be apply to
A. Current Slide
B. Selected Slides
C. All Slides
D. All of the above
Q: A new presentation can be created from
A. Blank Presentation
B. From Existing Presentation
C. From Design Template
D. All of above
Q: In slide layout panel how many layouts are available for text layout by default?
A. 4 (In MS Powerpoint 2007 and higher versions, there are 9 Layouts)
B. 7
C. 12
D. None of above
Q: How many steps are there between Start and Finish in AutoContent Wizard?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Q: In a PowerPoint presentation
A. Sound clips can be inserted but not movie clips
B. Movie clips can be inserted but not sound clips
C. Both cannot be inserted
D. Both can be inserted
Q: Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
A. .jpg
B. .gif
C. .wav
D. All of the above
Download MS Office Shortcut Keys
| MS- Word, Excel, Poerwpoint | Download Now |
Internet/HTML
Q: The attribute ……………… of <BODY> tag sets color of hypertext links.
A) link
B) vlink
C) alink
D) hlink
Q: Default font size of HTML is …………………..
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Q: This is a networking device that passes data between networks having similar functions but dissimilar implementations.
A) Hub
B) Modem
C) Gateway
D) Repeater
Q: In order to connect to ISP’s server you need …….
A) Hand gloves
B) Printer
C) User name and Password
D) None of the above
Q: DNS translates ………
A) domain name into IP
B) IP into domain name
C) both a & b
D) domain name into physical address
Q: In order to upload a HTML file to a web server, you use
A) HTTP
B) SMTP
C) SIP
D) FTP
Q: IEEE stands for ……..
A) Institute of estimated elevator efficiency
B) Institute of electrical and economical engineers
C) Institute of Eurasia engineering event
D) Institute of electrical and electronics engineers
Q: The regional networks are connected to the corporate networks, this is also called as ……..
A) Backbone
B) LAN COM
C) WAN COM
D) Intranet
Q: Once the email is sent, the message is broken into pieces called ………………
A) Packets
B) Process
C) Digits
D) Bytes
Q: ………………. is known as the father of the World Wide Web.
A) Robert Cailliau
B) Tim Thompson
C) Charles Darwin
D) Tim Berners-Lee
Q: ……………………. connects web pages.
A) Connector
B) Link
C) Hyperlink
D) None of the above
Q: Internet is ………………………….
A) a network of networks
B) an ocean of resources waiting to be mined
C) a cooperative anarchy
D) all of the above
Q: ……………… is suitable for remote administration of a computer.
A) FTP
B) Shell
C) Remote Procedure Call
D) Telnet
Q: Title tag is nested within the ………………….. tag.
A) Body
B) Head
C) List
D) Table
Q: ……………….. is a web’s native protocol.
A) SLIP
B) TCP/IP
C) HTTP
D) PPP
Q: The Internet uses the …………………… as the protocol engine.
A) SLIP
B) HTTP
C) TCP/IP
D) PPP
Q: A ……………………….. is a symbolic name a network administrator assigns to a machine.
A) URL
B) DNS
C) IP address
D) Host name
Q: Which of the following protocol is used for e-mail services.
A) SMAP
B) SMTP
C) SMIP
D) SMOP
Q: …………………. is the incoming e-mail server.
A) POP
B) SMTP
C) SMIP
D) PPP
Q: ………………….. is a uniform naming scheme for locating resources on the web.
A) URI
B) HTTP
C) WEBNAME
D) RESOURCENAME
Q: __ servers store and manage files for network users.
(a) Authentication
(b) Main
(c) Web
(d) File
Q: ISP stands for
(a) Internet Security Protocol
(b) Intelligent Service Package
(c) Internet Service Provider
(d) Intelligent Service Provider
Q: http stands for
(a) hyper text transfer protocol
(b) hypertet transmission protocol
(c) high transfer transport protocol
(d) hyper transfer text protocol
Q: We access the World Wide Web using :
(a) Browsers
(b) Instant messaging applications
(c) High bandwidth
(d) Search engine
Q: The Internet began with the development of
(a) USENET
(b) ARPANET
(c) Ethernet
(d) Intranet
Q: A wireless network uses ………. waves to transmit signals
(a) mechanical
(b) radio
(c) sound
(d) magnetic
Q: The design of the network is called the network:
(a) architecture
(b) server
(c) transmission
(d) type
Q: __ is an internet standard (or) set of rules that allows the exchange of information on www
(a) HTTP
(b) FTP
(c) TCP/IP
(d) Telnet
Q: The server on the internet is also known as:
(a) Repeater
(b) Host
(c) Gateway
(d) AND Gate
Q: HTML is stand for _________
a) Hyper Text Markup Language
b) Holistick Technical Method Library
c) Hyper Tax Makes Line
d) None of the above
Q: HTML is a subset of ______
a) SGMD
b) SGML
c) SGMH
d) None of the above
Q: To create HTML page, you need _____
a) Web browser
b) text editor
c) Both [A] and [B]
d) None of the above
Q: The BODY tag is usually used after ______
a) HTML tag
b) EM tag
c) TITLE tag
d) HEAD tag
Q: The first tag inside <TABLE> tag is _______
a) <HEAD>
b) <CAPTION>
c) <TH>
d) <TD>
Q: Which program do you need to write HTML?
a) A graphics program
b) Any text editor
c) HTML -development suite 4
d) All of the above
Q: <! Is a ______
a) Comment tag
b) Underlined tag
c) Underlined with italic tag
d) None of the above
Q: Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading
a) <h1>
b) <h2>
c) <h4>
d) <h6>
Q: HTML tags are recognized by ____
a) <!
b) <= =>
c) < >
d) None of the above
Q: The HTML tags are all
a) in lower case
b) in upper case
c) case sensitive
d) not case sensitive
Q: Which tag tells where a link starts?
a) <a>
b) <i>
c) <body>
d) None of the above
Q: Which the correct e-mail link?
a) <a href=”mailto:xxx@yyy”>
b) <mail>xxx@yyy</mail>
c) <a href=”xxx@yyy”>
d) <href=”xxx@yyy”>
Q: Which of the following are the advantages of CSS?
i) CSS saves time ii) Page load faster
iii) Easy maintenance iv) Multiple compatibility
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
Q: A CSS style rule is made up of three parts which are ..
i) Selector ii) Property
iii) Value iv) Attribute
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
Q: Which is not the selector type of CSS?
A) Type selector
B) Universal selector
C) Local selector
D) Descendant selector
Q: The correct example of class selector is .
A) hQ:type1 {color: #000000;}
B) h2 type1 {color: #000000;}
C) h2 #type1 {color: #000000;}
D) #h2 type1 {color: #000000;}
Q: CSS comments are inserted inside .
A) //……………….//
B) <!………………>
C) /*………………*/
D) All of the above
Q: We can handle old browsers by placing CSS codes inside.
A) //……………….//
B) <!………………>
C) /*………………*/
D) None of the above
Q: State whether True or False.
i) Any inline style sheet takes highest priority.
ii) Any rule defined in <style> ………………………</style> tag will override rules defined in any external style sheet file.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-False, ii-True
C) i-True, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
Q: …………………. is used to import an external style sheet in a manner similar to the <link> element.
A) @insert
B) @import
C) #import
D) #insert
Q: Which of the following is / are the measurement units in CSS?
i) % ii) cm iii) em iv) pc v) px
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) i, ii, iii and v only
C) i, ii, iv and v only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Q: The possible formats of CSS colors are.
i) Hex code – #RRGGBB
ii) Short Hex Code – #RGB
iii) RGB% – rgb(rrr%, ggg%, bbb%)
iv) Keyword – teal, blue, black
A) i, ii and iv only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv
Q: Which of the following are the background properties in CSS?
i) background-color ii) background-image iii) background-repeat
iv) background-position v) background
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) i, ii, iii and v only
C) i, ii, iv and v only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Q: State whether the statement is/are True.
i) font-family property is used to change the face of a font.
ii) font-variant property is used to create small-caps effects.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-False, ii-True
C) i-True, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
Q: The CSS links properties are
A) :link, :visited, :hover, :active
B) :link, :visit, :hover, :active
C) :link, :visited, :over, :active
D) :link, :visited, :hover, :active, :inactive
Q: Internet Explorer uses ………………….. property to create transparent images.
A) -moz-opacity:x
B) filter: alpha(opacity=x)
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Q: The different ways to associate styles with a HTML document is/are
A) Embedded CSS with <style> element
B) Inline CSS with style attribute.
C) External CSS with <link> element.
D) All of the above
Q: Which of the following is correct CSS syntex for using font property?
A) <p style=”font: italic, bold, 15px;”> ……………. </p>
B) <p style=”font-style: italic font-weight: bold font-size: 15px;”> ………………. </p>
C) <p style=”font: italic bold 15px;”> ………………….. </p>
D) None of the above
Q: State True of False for the CSS table properties.
i) The border-spacing specifies the width that should appear between table rows.
ii) The empty-cells specifies whether the border should be shown if a cell is empty.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-False, ii-True
C) i-True, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
Q: In CSS tables, the possible values for the caption-side property can have the following values.
A) top, bottom, left or right
B) top, bottom, center, left or right
C) top or bottom
D) left or right
Q: The ………………. property indicates whether a cell without any content should have a border displayed.
A) blank-cells
B) empty-cells
C) nocontent-cells
D) noborder-cells
Q: The ………………… specifies whether a border should be solid, dashed line, doted line, double line, groove etc.
A) border-layout
B) border-decoration
C) border-style
D) border-weight
Window/Computer Fundamental/IT
कंप्यूटर एक इलेक्ट्रॉनिक मशीन है जिसमे हम कीबोर्ड के माध्यम से डाटा इनपुट करवाते है और कंप्यूटर उस इन्फॉर्मेशन को स्टोर करके व प्रोसेस करके हमे डेस्कटॉप के माध्यम से रिजल्ट दिखाता है कंप्यूटर शब्द लैटिन भाषा कंप्यूट से लिया गया है जिसका अर्थ होता है गणना करना, कंप्यूटर को अभिकलित्र, संगणक, अभिकलक, परिकलक आदि के नाम से भी जाना जाता है
कंप्युटर की पीढ़िया
पहली पीढ़ी (1939-195Q: वैक्यूम ट्यूब
इस पीढ़ी के कम्प्यूटर में डायोड वाल्व वैक्यूम ट्यूब का प्रयोग किया गया था। इस डायोड वाल्व नामक वैक्यूम ट्यूब का आविष्कार सर एम्ब्रोज फ्लेमिंग ने सन् 1904 में किया था
प्रथम पीढ़ी के मुख्य कम्प्यूटर्स: Eniac, edsac, IBM-650, IBM0702, IBM-704 आदि हैं।
दूसरी पीढ़ी (1956–196Q: ट्रांजिस्टर
दूसरी पीढ़ी के कम्प्यूटर में वैक्यूम ट्यूब के स्थान पर ट्रांजिस्टर का प्रयोग किया गया
दूसरी पीढ़ी के मुख्य कंप्यूटर: स्पेरी यूनीवैक-3, हनीवैल 400, 800, CDC 1604, CDC 3600, लियो का Mark-3
तीसरी पीढ़ी (1966–19Q: एकीकृत सर्किट
तीसरी पीढ़ी के कम्प्यूटर में ट्रांजिस्टर के स्थान पर Integrated Circuits का प्रयोग होने लगा था।
तीसरी पीढ़ी के मुख्य कम्प्यूटर्स: IBM का System-360m DEC (Digital Equipment Corporation) का Programable Data Processor-1 (PDP–Q: , PDP–5, PDP–5, PDP–8, ICL 1900, और UNIVAC 1108 और 9000 थे।
चौथी पीढ़ी (1976–अब तक) माइक्रोप्रोसेसर
चौथी पीढ़ी मे कंप्युटर मे Large Scale Integration (LSI)व Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI) चिप के निर्माण सम्भव हो पाया था
चौथी पीढ़ी में मुख्य कम्प्यूटर: IBM 4311, Star 1100, Dec 10, Zx Spectrum, PDP 11, Macintosh, CRAY 1 Super Computer, CRAY X Super Computer
पाँचवी पीढ़ी (वर्तमान) कृत्रिम बुद्धि
पाँचवी पीढ़ी के कम्प्यूटर्स के Very Large Scale Integration (VLSI) चिप के स्थान पर Extra Large Scale Integration (ULSI) माइक्रोप्रोसेसर का प्रयोग किया गया
पाँचवी पीढ़ी में मुख्य कम्प्यूटर: लैपटॉप, डेस्कटॉप, नोटबुक, Palmtop, मोबाइल पैड, परम सुपर कंप्यूटर
कंप्युटर का इतिहास
Abacus: ली काई चेन ने चीन मे किया गया
Napier’s Bones: जॉन नेपियर ने 1614 मे स्कॉटलैंड मे किया
Slide Rule: विलियम औटरेड ने 1620 मे जर्मनी मे किया
Pascaline: ब्लेज पास्कल ने 1642 मे फ्रांस मे किया
Leibniz Calculator: गोटफरेड वाऊँ लेबनीज़ ने 1671 मे जर्मनी मे किया
Jacquard loom: जोसेफ मेरी ने 1801 मे फ्रांस मे किया
Arithmometer: 1820
Difference Engine: चार्ल्स बेबेज ने 1822 मे किया गया
Analytical Engine: चार्ल्स बेबेज ने 1834 मे किया गया
Scheutizian Calculation Engine: 1843
Tabulating machine: हरमन हॉर्लिथ ने 1880 मे किया गया
Harvard mark 1: हावर्ड आइकन ने 1930 मे किया गया
Z1: 1936-1938
Atanasoff-Berry Computer ABC: 1939 -1942
ENIAC(Electronic Numerical Integrated Calculator): जे पी एकर्ट व जॉन मोचली ने 1946 मे किया गया
EDSAC(Electronic Delay Storage Automatic Calculator): मोरिस विलकस ने 1950 मे किया गया
EDVAC(Electronic Discreate variable Automatic Calculator): जॉन नयुमन ने 1950 मे किया गया
UNIVAC(Universal Automatic Computer): जे प्रेसपेर एकर्ट व जॉन मोचली ने 1951 मे किया गया
कंप्यूटर के प्रकार
साइज के आधार पर
माइक्रो: इन कंप्युटर का प्रोफेसर छोटा होता है और इनका साइज भी छोटा होता है यह किसी ब्रीफकेस में रखा जा सकता है इस कंप्यूटर पर एक ही व्यक्ति कार्य कर सकता है
मिनी: इन कंप्युटर की स्पीड थोड़ी ज्यादा होती है और इन कंप्यूटर में एक ही CPU रखे जा सकते है जैसे, बैंक में
मेनफ्रेम: इन कंप्युटर की स्पीड अधिक होती है ये अधिक क्षमता वाले कंप्यूटर होते है
इनल आकर भी बड़ा होता है जिसे रेलवे, बड़ी कंपनियों, बैंकों में प्रयोग किया जाता है
सुपर: ये तेज गति व अधिक क्षमता वाले कंप्यूटर होते है ये साइज में बहुत बड़े होते है एक से अधिक व्यक्ति इस पर कार्य कर सकते है
डेस्कटॉप: ये कंप्यूटर एक टेबल व सेट पर रखा जाता है इनकी कीमत कम होती है इन्हें दूसरी जगह नहीं ले जाया जा सकता
वर्कस्टेशन: वर्कस्टेशन आकार में माइक्रो कंप्यूटर के साइज के ही होते हैं परंतु वर्कस्टेशन अधिक शक्तिशाली होते हैं तथा यह विशेष रूप से जटिल कार्यों के लिए प्रयोग में लाए जाते है
कार्यप्रणाली के आधार पर
एनालॉग: भौतिक मात्राओ जैसे टेम्परेचर, दाब, इकाई, हाइट, लेंथ आदि मापने वाले कंप्यूटर
डिजिटल: गणना करने वाले कंप्युटर
हाइब्रिड: ये दोनों प्रकार के कंप्यूटर होते है जिसमे एनालॉग व डिजिटल के गुण होते है
उद्देश्य के आधार पर
स्पेशल पर्पस: विशेष कार्य वाले कंप्यूटर जैसे, अंतरिक्ष, मौसम, उपग्रह, विज्ञान आदि स्थानों पर प्रयोग किया जाता है
जनरल पर्पस: सामान्य उद्देश्य के लिए तैयार किये जाने वाले कंप्यूटर
Full form of Computer
C: Common आम तौर पर
O: Operating संचालित
M: Machine मशीन
P: Particular or Programing विशेष रूप से या प्रोग्राम बनाना
U: User प्रयुक्त
T: Technical तकनीकी
E: Educational शैक्षणिक
R: Resources अनुसंधान
Parts of Computer
प्रोसेसर: Micro Processor.
मदर बोर्ड: Mother Board
मेमोरी: Memory
हार्ड डिस्क: Hard Disk Drive
मॉडेम: Modem
साउंड कार्ड: Sound Card
स्पीकर: Speaker
मॉनिटर: Monitor
फ्लॉपी डिस्क: Floppy Disc
की-बोर्ड माउस: Keyboard/Mouse
प्रिंटर: Printer
Computer Fundamental Question Answer
कम्प्यूटर एक इलेक्ट्रानिक मशीन है
इसको हिंदी भाषा मे संगणक के नाम से जाना जाता है
आधुनिक कम्प्यूटर का पिता चार्ल्स बैवेज को कहते हैं
कैलक्यूलेटर का आविष्कार पास्कल ने किया था
कम्प्यूटर का मुख्य पृष्ट डेस्क टाप कहलाता है
भारत मे निर्मित पहला कम्प्यूटर सिद्धार्थ था
सबसे बडा कम्प्यूटर नेटवर्क इंटरनेट है
भारत का प्रथम कम्प्यूटर बैंगलूर के प्रधान डाक घर मे लगाया गया
इटरनेट का प्रथम प्रयोग अमेरिका के रक्षा अनुसंधान मे हुआ
कम्प्यूटर मे प्रयुक्त होने वाला IC चिप्स सिलिकान का बना होता है
भारत का सिलिकान वैली बैंगलोर को कहते हैं
कंप्यूटर का मुख्य पटल मदरबोर्ड होता है
पढ़ते रहिए CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
कम्प्यूटर का मस्तिष्क सी.पी.यू. को कहते हैं
CPU के तीन मुख्य भाग: अर्थमेटिकल लॉजिकल यूनिट, कंट्रोल यूनिट, रजिस्टर
कंप्यूटर ले CPU का फंक्शन गणनाएं व प्रोसेसिंग करना है
मुख्य मेमोरी CPU के समन्वय से कार्य करती है
मॉनिटर के डिस्प्ले आकार को डायगिनली मापा जाता है
ऑप्टिकल डिस्क को सी डी कॉम्पैक्ट डिस्क भी कहा जाता है
बिजली जाने पर RAM में रखा डेटा समाप्त हो जाता है
कम्प्यूटर अपने परिणाम को भविष्य हेतु मैमोरी मे सुरक्षित रखता है
कंप्यूटर की क्षमता सीमित होती है
कंप्यूटर को कृत्रिम प्रकार की बुद्धि की संज्ञा दी गई है
कंप्यूटर में एकत्रित डेटा को सूचना कहा जाता है
कंप्यूटर में चिह्न व संख्यात्मक सूचना को डेटा कहा जाता है
डेटा प्रोसेसिंग का अर्थ वाणिज्यिक उपयोग के लिए जानकारी तैयार करना है
कंप्यूटर के कीबोर्ड में फंक्शन की 12 होती है
CTRL, ALT, Shift keys को मोडिफायर की कहा जाता है
Most Important Question for Basic Computer Full Form
IC का पूर्ण रूप इंटरग्रेटेड सर्किट होता है
IBM का पूर्ण रूप इंटरनेशनल बिजनेस मशीन है
WWW का पूर्ण रूप वर्ल्ड वाईड वेव है
LAN का पूर्ण रूप लोकल एरिया नेटवर्क है
WAN का पूर्ण रूप वाइड एरिया नेटवर्क है
MAN का पूर्ण रूप मेट्रोपोलिटेड एरिया नेटवर्क है
RAM का पूर्ण रूप रैंडम एक्सिस मेमोरी है
ROM का पूर्ण रूप रिड ओनली मेमोरी है
CD का पूर्ण रूप काम्पैक्ट डिस्क होता है
OS का पूर्ण रूप ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम होता है
VDU का पूर्ण रूप विजुअल डिस्प्ले यूनिट है
PC का पूरा नाम पर्सनल कंप्यूटर है
HTML का पूर्ण रूप हायपर टेक्ट मार्कप लांग्वेज है
HTTP का पूर्ण रूप हायपर टेक्ट ट्रांसफर प्रोटोकाल है
ALU का पूर्ण रूप अर्थमेटिक लाजिकल यूनिट है
OCR का पूर्ण रूप Optical Character Recognition है
URL का पूर्ण रूप यूनिफॉर्म रिसोर्सेज लोकटर होता है
DNS का पूर्ण रूप डोमेन नेम सिस्टम होता है
CPU का पूर्ण रूप सेंट्रल प्रोसेसिंग यूनिट है
CU का पूर्ण रूप कंट्रोल यूनिट होता है
COBOL का पूर्ण रूप कामन बिजनेस ओरिएंटेड लांग्वेज है
DOS का पूर्ण रूप डिस्क आपरेटिंग सिस्टम है
E MAIL का पूर्ण रूप इलेक्ट्रानिक मेल होता है
FAX का पूर्ण रूप फार अवे झेरोक्स होता है
कम्प्यूटर को बंद करने की प्रक्रिया को शट डाउन तथा चालू करने की प्रक्रिया को बुट अप कहते है
मॉनिटर का अन्य नाम VDU है
स्टैंडर्ड की बोर्ड मे 101 से लेकर 104 तक बटन होते हैं
चुम्बकीय डिस्क पर आयरन आक्साइड की परत होती है
कम्प्यूटर हमेशा बाइनरी भाषा को ही समझता है
बाइनरी नम्बर प्रणाली मे 0 तथा 1 का प्रयोग होता है
फलापी डिस्क की साइज Q:25” तथा Q: 25” होती है
कम्प्यूटर नेटवर्क से सम्पर्क जोडने की प्रक्रिया को ‘लाग इन’ तथा सम्पर्क तोडने को ‘लाग आउट’ कहते हैं
आपरेटिंग सिस्टम मे RAM का प्रयोग किया जाता है
कम्प्यूटर मे प्रोग्राम की सूची को मेंयू कहते हैं
मोडेम टेलीफोन लाइन पर काम करता है
कम्प्यूटर के डम्प होने का कारण वाइरस होता है
कम्प्यूटर वाइरस एक डिस्ट्रकटिव प्रोग्राम होता है
कम्प्यूटर का भौतिक बनावट हार्डवेयर कहलाता है
हार्ड डिस्क की गति RPM. मे मापी जाती है
Computer Bit Table
बिट: बिट को बाइनरी डिजिट भी कहते है उआह डेटा व इनफार्मेशन की छोटी डिजिट होती है और डेटा टट्रांसफर की स्पीड को हमेशा बिट्स मे मापा जाता है कंप्युटर हमेशा बाइनरी भाषा को समझता है जो 0 और 1 की फोरम मे होती है
बाइट: यह मेमोरी की एक यूनिट है जिसमे 8 बिट्स के समूह को 1 बाइट कहा जाता है बिट को b से दर्शाया जाता है जबकि बाइट को B से दर्शाया जाता है
| बिट का नाम | साइज़ |
|---|---|
| 8 बिट | 1 बाइट |
| 1024 बाइट | 1 किलो बाइट |
| 1024 किलो बाइट | 1 MB( Megabyte) |
| 1024 मेगा बाइट | 1 GB(Gigabyte) |
| 1024 गीगा बाइट | 1 TB(Terrabyte) |
| 1024 टेरा बाइट | 1 PB(Petabyte) |
| 1024 पेटा बाइट | 1 EB(Exabyte) |
| 1024 एक्सा बाइट | 1 ZB( Zettabyte) |
| 1024 जेटा बाइट | 1 YB(Yottabyte) |
पढ़ते रहिए CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
IBM (इंटर नेशनल बिजनेस मशीन) एक कम्प्यूटर कम्पनी है
कम्प्यूटर का मुख्य पृष्ट डेस्क टाप कहलाता है
कम्प्यूटर के क्षेत्र मे महान क्रांति 1960 ई. मे आयी
DOS और WINDOWS एक प्रकार के आपरेटिंग सिस्टम हैं
माउस,की बोर्ड, जायस्टिक, स्कैनर, तथा लाइट पेन इनपुट डिवाइस के उदाहरण हैं
परिंटर, स्पीकर, तथा मानिटर आउटपुट डिवाइस हैं
इंटरनेट पर भेजा जाने वाला संदेश ई मेल कहलाता है
उच्चस्तरीय भाषा से मशीनी भाषा मे रूपांतरण सोर्स प्रोग्राम द्वारा होता है
अग्रेजी के समान उच्चस्तरीय भाषा कोबोल है
परोग्राम हेतु विकसित प्रथम भाषा फोरट्रान है
उच्चस्तरीय भाषा का अनुवाद निम्न स्तरीय भाषा मे कम्पाइलर करता है
उच्चस्तरीय भाषा का विकास IBM ने किया
फोरट्रान,कोबोल, बेसिक, अल्गोल, पास्कल आदि उच्चस्तरीय भाषाएं हैं
मदर बोर्ड एक सर्किट बोर्ड है, इसमे सी.पी.यू. जोडे जाते हैं
हार्ड डिस्क मे कम्प्यूटर प्रोग्रामों को स्टोर किया जाता है
कम्प्यूटर तीन प्रकार के होते हैं- डिजिटल, एनालाँग, एवं हाइब्रिड
असेम्बलर ,असेम्बली भाषा को यंत्र भाषा मे बदलता है
CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
प्रश्न:In which shortcut key use to center the selecting text.
उत्तर: Ctrl+E
प्रश्न:You can Hyperlink the file
उत्तर: Pressing the Ctrl+Enter & Break command from view menu
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not a part of standard office suite?
उत्तर: File Manager
प्रश्न:Which bar is usually located below that title bar that provides categorized options?
उत्तर: Status Bar
प्रश्न:Which of the following are valid Minimum and Maximum zoom size in MS Word?
उत्तर: 10, 500
प्रश्न:Which of the following are the Minimum and Maximum font size of MS Word?
उत्तर: 1, 1638
प्रश्न:We can insert Maximum number of Columns are
उत्तर: 45
प्रश्न:To move the cursor page to page of documents.
उत्तर: Ctrl+ Page Down, Ctrl+Page UP
प्रश्न:The four types of mail merge main documents are
उत्तर: Form letters, Envelops and Mailing labels, directories and lists
प्रश्न:You can break the active column using
उत्तर: Break From Insert Command & Ctrl+Shift+Enter
प्रश्न:Binary code “0” means …………
उत्तर: State of absence
प्रश्न:…………. is compulsory part of HTML.
उत्तर: <body>
प्रश्न:CAI stands for …………….
उत्तर: Computer-aided information
प्रश्न:Maximum font size in HTML is ………..
उत्तर: 7
प्रश्न:MICR reader is an …………… device.
उत्तर: Input
प्रश्न:Internet is ……………..
उत्तर: Network of Networks
प्रश्न:…………….. is a standalone tag.
उत्तर: <img>
प्रश्न:FTP stands for
उत्तर: File Transfer Protocol
प्रश्न:Hexadecimal number system has …………..base.
उत्तर: 16
प्रश्न:HTML stands for
उत्तर: Hypertext Markup language
प्रश्न:The default setting for a horizontal rule is …………..
उत्तर: shaded
प्रश्न:…………… tag is used to embed image in a webpage.
उत्तर: <img src=”pic.gif”>
प्रश्न:This is a global collection of high-powered computer that are connected together with cables, telephone lines, microwave dishes, satellites etc.
उत्तर: Internet
प्रश्न:………… is used to pointing / selecting the screen co-ordinates by detecting the light.
उत्तर: Light Pen
प्रश्न:…………… displays the information about the active document such as page number, section number, number of pages, insertion point, position, etc.
उत्तर: Status Bar
प्रश्न:……….. a record means a new record to the file.
उत्तर: Appending
प्रश्न:To move the cursor to end of the document, press …………….
उत्तर: Ctrl+End
प्रश्न:SMTP stands for
उत्तर: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
प्रश्न:JPEG stands for ……………
उत्तर: Joint Photographic Experts Group
पढ़ते रहिए CRID Panchayat Local Operator Exam Notes
प्रश्न:The short cut key to start a new line without starting a new paragraph is ……
उत्तर: Shift+Enter
प्रश्न:What program included in windows can be used to record sound?
उत्तर: Sound Recorder
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not database program?
उत्तर: Ms Excel
प्रश्न:Which of the following is/are HTML tags type?
उत्तर: Paired Tags & Singular Tags
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not a data type?
उत्तर: Picture/Graphic
प्रश्न:An organized collection of logically related data is known as …
उत्तर: Database
प्रश्न:A character is equal to ..
उत्तर: One Byte
प्रश्न:Which of the following input devices is also known as memory device?
उत्तर: Punch Cards
प्रश्न:A programming language that uses binary codes in ..
उत्तर: Machine Language
प्रश्न:A computer Programmer ……..
उत्तर: does all the thinking for a computer
प्रश्न:The first calculating device is ……….
उत्तर: Abacus
प्रश्न:A printed circuit board that adds additional capabilities and functions to a computer’s उत्तर: hardware is ….
उत्तर: Mother Board
प्रश्न:The difference between memory and storage is that memory is ….. and storage is ……
उत्तर: Temporary, permanent
प्रश्न:Fifth generation computers will have ….
उत्तर: Artificial Intelligence
प्रश्न:Which of the following can be used to control the movement of a cursor on a video screen?
उत्तर: Joystick
प्रश्न:Which was the computer conceive by Babbage?
उत्तर: Analytical engine
प्रश्न:Super computer is also known as …….
उत्तर: Number Crunchier
प्रश्न:A local storage register, which contains the address of the next instruction to be executed, is
उत्तर: Address register
प्रश्न:Microprocessors can be used to make
उत्तर: Computers, Digital Systems & Calculators
प्रश्न:IBM PC was established in …….
उत्तर: 1924 AD
प्रश्न:Printers are categorized according to ….
उत्तर: Whether the image produced is formed by physical contact of the print mechanism with paper
प्रश्न:Serial access memories are useful in applications where
उत्तर: Data naturally needs to flow in an out in serial form.
प्रश्न:Transistors were used in ……… generation computer.
उत्तर: Second
प्रश्न:Linkage between the CPU and the users is provided by ….
उत्तर: Peripheral devices
प्रश्न:Registers, which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional, are known as …
उत्तर: Flags
प्रश्न:……… unit acts as a combination channel between user and a computer.
उत्तर: Input
प्रश्न:What is the generation of the computers that are built with VLSI technology and microprocessors?
उत्तर: Fourth
प्रश्न:An integrated circuit is ..
उत्तर: Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip
प्रश्न:Which is the connector of the coaxial cable?
उत्तर: BNC
प्रश्न:Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?
उत्तर: Buses
प्रश्न:The ARPANET helped to develop protocol called …..
उत्तर: ARP
प्रश्न:The ALU of central processing unit does the essential math work for the computer. What does the control unit do …..
उत्तर: Monitors the flow of information
प्रश्न:The language that the computer can understand and execute is called ….
उत्तर: Machine language
प्रश्न:Boot virus affects the ……… of the program of a system.
उत्तर: Boot recorded program
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model?
उत्तर: Treelike Structure
प्रश्न:Who designed the first electronics computer ENIAC?
उत्तर: J. Presper Eckers and John W Mouchley
प्रश्न:A language used to express algorithms in computer understandable form is ….
उत्तर: Assembly language
प्रश्न:Instructions and memory addresses are represented by ..
उत्तर: Binary codes
प्रश्न:Scandisk is performed by using …..
उत्तर: Operating system software
प्रश्न:BCD is
उत्तर: Binary Coded Decimal
प्रश्न:What is the name of the computer terminal, which gives paper printout?
उत्तर: Hard copy terminal
प्रश्न:Optical fibers are very reliable communication channels and they transmit data in ….
उत्तर: Digital
प्रश्न:Chief components of first generation computer was …
उत्तर: Vacuum Tubes and Valves
प्रश्न:The function of CPU is ….
उत्तर: to read, interprets and processes the information and instruction
प्रश्न:Copying file from Internet Server to client computer is called …..
उत्तर: FTP
प्रश्न:Fifth Generation of Computer is also known as ….
उत्तर: Knowledge information processing system
प्रश्न:What is meant by the term RAM?
उत्तर: Memory which can be both read and written to
प्रश्न:Which is not the network operating system?
उत्तर: MS-DOS
प्रश्न:Central Processing Unit is combination of …..
उत्तर: Arithmetic Logic and Control Unit
प्रश्न:Programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as ….
उत्तर: Application Software
प्रश्न:Analog Computer works on the supply of
उत्तर: Continuous electrical pulses
प्रश्न:Time during which a job is processed by a the computer is ….
उत्तर: Execution time
प्रश्न:Which of the following chips can be reprogrammed with special electric pulses?
उत्तर: EEPROM
प्रश्न:Hexadecimal number system have …
उत्तर: Sixteen Stable state
प्रश्न:The mostly commonly used standard data code to represent alphabetical, numerical and punctuation character used in electronic data processing system is called …
उत्तर: ASCII
प्रश्न:The term gigabyte refers to …
उत्तर: 1024 megabytes
प्रश्न:Group of instructions that directs a computer is called …
उत्तर: Program
प्रश्न:A type of memory chip whose contents can not be saved when a computer is turned off
उत्तर: RAM
प्रश्न:In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed …..
उत्तर: sequentially and parallel
प्रश्न:Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory?
उत्तर: Temporary
प्रश्न:Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program …
उत्तर: Machine language
प्रश्न:Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage, and never of processing?
उत्तर: Dumb terminal
प्रश्न:Who is called called the “GrandFather” of the computer?
उत्तर: Charles Babbage
प्रश्न:The translator program used in assembly language is called …
उत्तर: Assembler
प्रश्न:A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for ….
उत्तर: Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data
प्रश्न:The transistorized computer circuits were introduced in the
उत्तर: Second generation
प्रश्न:Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time?
उत्तर: Terminal
प्रश्न:Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
उत्तर: Cache memory
प्रश्न:An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is …
उत्तर: Voice response unit
प्रश्न:Typical data transfer rates in LAN are of the order of
उत्तर: Mega bits per sec
प्रश्न:Programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as
उत्तर: Utility Programs
प्रश्न:A plastic card similar to a credit card but having some memory and a microprocessor embeded within it is …
उत्तर: Punch Paper Tape
प्रश्न:A network topology in which the outer nodes connect to a single central node is ….
उत्तर: Passive star
प्रश्न:The central processing unit(CPU) consists of
उत्तर: Control unit, processing, primary storage
प्रश्न:Which was the most popular first generation computer?
उत्तर: IBM 1650
पढ़ते रहिए CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
प्रश्न:A storage device where the access time is dependent upon the location of the data is ..
उत्तर: Serial access
प्रश्न:The computer code of the interchange of information between terminals is …
उत्तर: ASCII
प्रश्न:A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the microcomputer is known as …
उत्तर: Address bus
प्रश्न:What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer?
उत्तर: To compare numbers
प्रश्न:A hybrid computer ..
उत्तर: Resembles both a digital and analog computer
प्रश्न:A technique used by codes to convert an analog signal into a digital bit stream is known as …
उत्तर: Pulse code modulation
प्रश्न:Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
उत्तर: Plotter
प्रश्न:Which of the following is used for manufacturing chips?
उत्तर: Semiconductor
प्रश्न:A set of information that defines the status of resources allocated to a process is …
उत्तर: Process description
प्रश्न:The computer memory holds data and …..
उत्तर: Program
प्रश्न:A file that has been transferred to a lower level in the memory hierarchy is known as ….
उत्तर: Archive File
प्रश्न:The computer that process both analog and digital is called ..
उत्तर: Hybrid Computer
प्रश्न:The binary number 1000 is equivalent to decimal number ..
उत्तर: Eight
प्रश्न:A general purpose single use microcomputer designed to be operated by one person at time is …
उत्तर: PC
प्रश्न:The checking operation performed in input data is called the …
उत्तर: Validation of data
प्रश्न:Most important advantage of an IC is its ..
उत्तर: Extremely high reliability
प्रश्न:Software in computer ….
उत्तर: Enhanced the capabilities of the hardware machine
प्रश्न:The larger RAM of computer, the fastest processing speed is, since it eliminates ..
उत्तर: Frequent disk I/Os
प्रश्न:The earlier device the qualifies as a digital computer is …
उत्तर: Abacus
प्रश्न:Which of the following printer can be classified as a page at a time printer?
उत्तर: Laser Printer
प्रश्न:What are the units used to count the speed of a printer?
उत्तर: PPM
प्रश्न:Who is the founder of Oracle Corporation?
उत्तर: Laris Ellison
प्रश्न:Which of the following organizations looks at standards for representation of data on the Internet?
उत्तर: W3C
प्रश्न:Who is the founder of BSD Unix?
उत्तर: Bill Joy
प्रश्न:Which of the following topologies is highly reliable?
उत्तर: Fully connected mesh
प्रश्न:People typically interface with a computer based system when …
उत्तर: Information must be output
प्रश्न:The ALU of a computer response to the commands coming from
उत्तर: Control memory
प्रश्न:What allows you to print on both sides of the printers?
उत्तर: Duplexer
प्रश्न:A register organized to allow to move left or right operations is called a ….
उत्तर: Shift register
प्रश्न:Laser Jet Printer speeds are measured in pages per minute(PPM), what do we use to measure dot-matrix printers?
उत्तर: Characters per second
प्रश्न:Which of the following have the fastest access time?
उत्तर: Semiconductor Memories
प्रश्न:Which printer is very commonly used for desk to publishing?
उत्तर: Laser Printer
प्रश्न:What is a common language that computers use to talk with one another on a network?
उत्तर: Protocol
प्रश्न:A hard disk is divided into tracks, which are further subdivided into …
उत्तर: Sectors
प्रश्न:The bar-code which is used on all types of items, is ready by a scanning device directly into the computer. What is the name of this scanning?
उत्तर: Laser scanner
Cप्रश्न: What is the name of the reading device which makes use of photo sensors and laser technologies to interpret printed types of even handwritten data directly from the source document?
उत्तर: OCR
प्रश्न:Modem use ………. transmission.
उत्तर: synchronous
प्रश्न:Which of the following is a type of preventive maintenance used on a hard drive?
उत्तर: Disk diagnostics
प्रश्न:The storage location in the internal storage of a CPU are called …
उत्तर: Address
प्रश्न:What are alternative names for the internal storage of a computer?
उत्तर: real storage & primary memory
प्रश्न:During the normal PC boot process, which of the following is active first?
उत्तर: ROM BIOS
प्रश्न:Which of the following chips can be reprogrammed with special electric pulses?
उत्तर: EEPROM
प्रश्न:The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputer and combined and manufactured on a single silicon chip what it is called …
उत्तर: Micro Processor
प्रश्न:Mini computers are ….
उत्तर: larger than micro but smaller than mainframe
प्रश्न:The decreased cost and increased performance of computer hardware were the distinguishing features of which generation of computer?
उत्तर: all generations
प्रश्न:The CPU chip used in a computer practically made out of …
उत्तर: silica
पढ़ते रहिए CRID Panchayat Local Operator Exam Notes
प्रश्न:The word ‘computer’ usually refers to the central processing unit plus
उत्तर: Internal memory
प्रश्न:A computer will function in its memory ..
उत्तर: has a program in its memory
प्रश्न:Which statement is valid for the digital computer?
उत्तर: it represents the decimal numbers through a string of binary digits
प्रश्न:The central computer in a distributed processing system is called the
उत्तर: Host
प्रश्न:ROM is a non-volatile memory because …
उत्तर: the programs are permanently stored
प्रश्न:Memories in which any location can be reached in a fixed land short amount of the time after specifying its address is called …
उत्तर: Random access memory
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not a part of the CPU?
उत्तर: Program
प्रश्न:The register which contains the data to be return into or read out of the addressed location is known as …
उत्तर: Memory register
प्रश्न:The Qwerty keyboard ..
उत्तर: is the most popular keyboard
प्रश्न:Microcomputers are …उत्तर: Highly efficient in data processing
उत्तर: Small and elegant
प्रश्न:Which of the computer memory is essentially empty?
उत्तर: FROM
प्रश्न:Which is the most powerful type of computer?
उत्तर: super computer
प्रश्न:Which of the following is not a sequence storage device?
उत्तर: Magnetic disk
Computer Network
Q: The computer network is
A) Network computer with cable
B) Network computer without cable
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Q: FDDI used which type of physical topology?
A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Tree
Q: FTP stands for
A) File transfer protocol
B) File transmission protocol
C) Form transfer protocol
D) Form transmission protocol
Q: Ethernet system uses which of the following technology.
A) Bus
B) Ring
C) Star
D) Tree
Q: Which of the following are the network services?
A) File service
B) Print service
C) Database service
D) All of the above
Q: If all devices are connected to a central hub, then topology is called
A) Bus Topology
B) Ring Topology
C) Star Topology
D) Tree Topology
Q: FDDI stands for
A) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
B) Fiber Data Distributed Interface
C) Fiber Dual Distributed Interface
D) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
Q: Which of the following is an application layer service?
A) Network virtual terminal
B) File transfer, access and management
C) Mail service
D) All of the above
Q: Which is the main function of transport layer?
A) Node to node delivery
B) End to end delivery
C) Synchronization
D) Updating and maintaining routing tables
Q: The ………… layer change bits onto electromagnetic signals.
A) Physical
B) Transport
C) Data Link
D) Presentation
Q: In mesh topology, relationship between one device and another is …………..
A) Primary to peer
B) Peer to primary
C) Primary to secondary
D) Peer to Peer
Q: The performance of data communications network depends on …………..
A) Number of users
B) The hardware and software
C) The transmission
D) All of the above
Q: Find out the OSI layer, which performs token management.
A) Network Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Presentation Layer
Q: The name of the protocol which provides virtual terminal in TCP/IP model is.
A) Telnet
B) SMTP
C) HTTP
Q: The layer one of the OSI model is
A) Physical layer
B) Link layer
C) Router layer
D) Broadcast layer
Q: What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between each possible node?
A) Ring
B) Star
C) Tree
D) Mesh
Q: What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission?
A) Bytes per second
B) Baud
C) Bits per second
D) Both B and C
Q: Which of the communication modes support two way traffic but in only once direction of a time?
A) Simplex
B) Half-duplex
C) Three – quarter’s duplex
D) Full duplex
Q: The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called ………….
A) Attenuation
B) Propagation
C) Scattering
D) Interruption
Q: Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is used for transferring files form one machine to another.
A) FTP
B) SNMP
C) SMTP
D) RPC
Q: Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol?
A) Application Layer
B) Session Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Internetwork layer
Q: ………………. address use 7 bits for the <network> and 24 bits for the <host> portion of the IP address.
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Q: …………. addresses are reserved for multicasting.
A) Class B
B) Class C
C) Class D
D) Class E
Q: State the following statement is true or false.
i) In class B addresses a total of more than 1 billion addresses can be formed.
ii) Class E addresses are reserved for future or experimental use.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False
Q: Which of the following statement is true?
i) An address with all bits 1 is interpreted as all networks or all hosts.
ii) The class A network 1Q: 0.0.0 is defined as the loopback network.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Q: Which is not the Regional Internet Registers (RIR) of the following?
A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B) Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers (ERIN)
C) Reseaux IP Europeans (RIPE)
D) Asia Pacific Network Information Centre (APNIC)
Q: Match the following IEEE No to their corresponding Name for IEEE 802 standards for LANs.
i) 80Q:3 a) WiFi
ii) 80Q:11 b) WiMa
iii) 80Q:Q: 1 c) Ethernet
iv) 80Q:16 d) Bluetooth
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
Q: ……….. was the first step in the evolution of Ethernet from a coaxial cable bus to hub managed, twisted pair network.
A) Star LAN
B) Ring LAN
C) Mesh LAN
D) All of the above
Q: …………… is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two pairs of category 5 or above cable.
A) 100 BASE-T
B) 100 BASE-TX
C) 100 BASE-T4
D) 100 BASE-T2
Q: IEEE 80Q:3ab defines Gigabit Ethernet transmission over unshielded twisted pair (UTP) category 5, 5e or 6 cabling known as ………………..
A) 1000 BASE-T
B) 1000 BASE-SX
C) 1000 BASE-LX
D) 1000 BASE-CX
Q: ………………….. is a high performance fiber optic token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances upto 1000 stations connected.
A) FDDI
B) FDDT
C) FDDR
D) FOTR
Q: Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
A) 1000 BASE-SX
B) 1000 BASE-LX
C) 1000 BASE-CX
D) All of above
Q: ………………….. is a collective term for a number of Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
A) Ethernet
B) Fast Ethernet
C) Gigabit Ethernet
D) All of the above
Q: …………… is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
A) S/NET
B) SW/NET
C) NET/SW
D) FS/NET
Q: The combination of ……………. And ………….. is often termed the local address of the local portion of the IP address.
A) Network number and host number
B) Network number and subnet number
C) Subnet number and host number
D) All of the above
Q: ………………….. implies that all subnets obtained from the same subnet mask.
A) Static subnetting
B) Dynamic subnetting
C) Variable length subnetting
D) Both B and C
Q: State whether true or false.
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use unicast addresses.
ii) The anycast service is included in IPVQ:
A) True, True
B) True, False
C) False, True
D) False, False
Q: The most important and common protocols associated TCP/IP internetwork layer are.
i) Internet protocol(IP) ii) Internet control Message Protocol(ICMP)
iii) Bootstrap Protocol (BooTP) iv) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
v) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) i, iii, iv and v only
C) ii, iii, iv and v only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Q: …………………….. is responsible for converting the higher level protocol addresses (IP addresses) to physical network addresses.
A) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
C) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
D) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Q: Which of the following is not a mechanism that DHCP supports for IP address allocation?
A) Automatic allocation
B) Static allocation
C) Dynamic allocation
D) Manual allocation
Q: TCP is a ………. protocol.
A. stream-oriented
B. message-oriented
C. block-oriented
D. packet-oriented
Q: Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol.
A. Physical layer
B. link layer
C. network layer
D. transport layer.
Q: TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ….
A. user datagram
B. segment
C. datagram
D. packet
Q: The ………. of TCP/IP protocol is responsible for figuring out how to get data to its destination.
A. application layer
B. link layer
C. network layer
D. transport layer.
Q: TCP is a(n) ……….. transport protocol.
A. protocol delivery
B. reliable
C. best-effort delivery
D. effortless delivery
Q: ……… is the protocol that hides the underlying physical network by creating a virtual network view.
A. Internet Protocol(IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)
C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)
D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP)
Q: To use the services of UDP, we need ……… socket addresses.
A. four
B. two
C. three
D. four
Q: Which of the following is not the name of Regional Internet Registries(RIR) to administer the network number portion of IP address.
A. American Registry for Internet Numbers(ARIN)
B. Reseaux IP Europeans(RIPE)
C. Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers(ERIN)
D. Asia Pacific Network Information Center(APNIC)
Q: UDP packets are called …….
A. user datagrams
B. segments
C. frames
D. packets
Q: ………… addresses use 21 bits for the and 8 bits for the portion of the IP address for TCP/IP network.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Q: UDP packets have fixed-size header of ………. bytes.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 64
Q: ………. messages are never sent in response to datagrams with a broadcast or a multicast destination address.
A. ICMP
B. ARP
C. IP
D. BOOTP
Q: TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is number of the ……. byte carried in that segment.
A. first
B. last
C. middle
D. zero
Q: ………. is responsible for converting the higher level protocol address (IP addresses) to physical network addresses.
A. Internet Protocol(IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)
C. Address Resolution Protocol(ARP)
D. Bootstrap Protocol(BOOTP)
Q: UDP and TCP are both ……… layer protocols.
A. data link
B. network
C. transport
D. interface
Q: ……….. is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from upper layer.
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. ARP
Q: Which of the following functions does UDP perform?
A. Process-to-process communication
B. Host-to-host communication
C. End-to-end reliable data delivery
D. Interface-to-interface communication.
Q: A port address in TCP/IP is ………bits long.
A. 32
B. 48
C. 16
D. 64
Q: When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, …..
A. delivery is complete
B. a transport layer protocol takes over
C. a header is added
D. a session layer protocol takes over
Q: TCP/IP is a ………. hierarchical protocol suite developed before the OSI model.
A. seven-layer
B. five-layer
C. six-layer
D. four-layer
Q: The …….. layer links the network support layers and the user support layers.
A. transport
B. network
C. data link
D. session
Q: The …………. layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.
A. physical
B. data link
C. transport
D. network
Q: The ………. layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium.
A. transport
B. network
C. data link
D. physical
Q: Which of the following is an application layer service?
A. remote log-in.
B. file transfer and access.
C. mail service
D. all of the above
Q: The ……… layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links.
A. transport
B. network
C. data link
D. session
Q: The ………. layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Q: The ………..layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of th entire message.
A. transport
B. network
C. data link
D. physical
Q: Mail services are available to network users through the ………. layer.
A. data link
B. physical
C. transport
D. application
Q: The ……….. layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices.
A. transport
B. network
C. session
D. physical
Q: The ………. layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
A. physical
B. data link
C. transport
D. session
Q: The ………. layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.
A. transport
B. network
C. data link
D. presentation
Q: Transmission media lies below the ………layer.
A. physical
B. network
C. transport
D. application
Q: The ……….. layer enables the users to access the network.
A. session
B. application
C. data link
D. physical
Q: Circuit switching takes place at the ………. layer.
A. data link
B. physical
C. network
D. transport
Q: The ………… layer is responsible for moving frames form one node to the next.
A. physical
B. data link
C. transport
D. session
Q: The routing processor of a router performs the …….. layer functions of the router.
A. physical and data link
B. network
C. transport
D. session
Q: The …………. layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical address of the sender and receiver.
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Q: Network layer lies on ………. layer.
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Q: The ………..layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.
A. physical
B. transport
C. network
D. session
20) The data link layer takes the packet it gets from the network layer and encapsulates them into ……
A. cells
B. frames
C. packet
D. trailer
Project Management
Q: The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
Q: Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
Q: Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
Q: Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
A. Time
B. Scope
C. Quality
D. Creativity
Q: Which project management process involves identifying project stakeholders?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Controlling
Q. “Risk” is usually _______ as the project progresses.
(A) increased
(B) reduced
(C) remained same
(D) become negligible
Q: Which project management technique is used to estimate the duration of project activities?
A. Critical Path Method (CPM)
B. Earned Value Management (EVM)
C. Monte Carlo simulation
D. Pareto analysis
Q. The basic nature of a project is a/an ________ one.
(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Q. A program is usually a group of
(A) plans
(B) people and work
(C) related projects
(D) unrelated projects
Q. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
Q: What does the acronym RACI stand for in project management?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Risk, Action, Change, Issue
C. Roles, Assignments, Control, Implementation
D. Resource, Activity, Cost, Impact
Q: Which type of power is based on an individual’s expertise and knowledge in project management?
A. Reward power
B. Coercive power
C. Referent power
D. Expert power
Q: Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following EXCEPT
A. Accountability.
B. Flexibility.
C. Innovation.
D. Speed.
E. Repeatability.
Two dimensions within the project management process are
A. Technical and sociocultural.
B. Cost and time.
C. Planned and unexpected.
D. Established and new.
E. Unique and reoccurring.
Which of these is NOT part of the “technical dimension” of project management?
A. WBS
B. Budgets
C. Problem solving
D. Schedules
E. Status reports
A Winchester disk is a
a) None of these
b) Removable disk
c) Flexible disk
d) All of the above
e) Disk stack
Q: A network that needs human beings to manually route signals is called….
A)Fiber Optic Network
B) Bus Network
C) T-switched network
D) Ring network
Q: TCP/IP …………….. layer corresponds to the OSI models to three layers.
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session
D) Transport
Q: Which of the transport layer protocols is connectionless?
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) FTP
D) Nvt
Q: Which of the following applications allows a user to access and change remote files without actual transfer?
A) DNS
B) FTP
C) NFS
D) Telnet
Q: The data unit in the TCP/IP layer called a …..
A) Message
B) Segment
C) Datagram
D) Frame
Q: DNS can obtain the …………….. of host if its domain name is known and vice versa.
A) Station address
B) IP address
C) Port address
D) Checksum
Q: Which of the following OSI layers correspond to TCP/IP’s application layer?
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session
D) All of the above
Q: Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a …….
A) File Server
B) Utility Server
C) Printer Server
D) Gateway
Q: A communication device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a
A) Concentrator
B) Modifier
C) Multiplexer
D) Full duplex file
Q: Which layers of the OSI determines the interface often system with the user?
A) Network
B) Application
C) Data link
D) Session
Q: Which of the following of the TCP/IP protocols is the used for transferring files from one machine to another?
A) FTP
C) SNMP
B) SMTP
D) Rpe
Q: In which OSI layers does the FDDI protocol operate?
A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Network
D) A and B
Q: In FDDI, data normally travel on ………………
A) The primary ring
B) The Secondary ring
C) Both rings
D) Neither ring
Q: The …………layer of OSI model can use the trailer of the frame for error detection.
A) Physical
B) Data link
C) Transport
D) Presentation
Q: In a …………….topology, if there are n devices in a network, each device has n-1 ports for cables.
A) Mesh
B) Star
C) Bus
D) Ring
Q: Another name for Usenet is
A) Gopher
B) Newsgroups
C) Browser
D) CERN
Q: The standard suit of protocols used by the Internet, Intranets, extranets and some other networks.
A) TCP/IP
B) Protocol
C) Open system
D) Internet work processor
Q: State whether the following is True or False.
i) In bus topology, heavy Network traffic slows down the bus speed.
ii) It is multipoint configuration.
A) True, True
B) True, False
C) False, True
D) False, False
Q: Which of the following is the logical topology?
A) Bus
B) Tree
C) Star
D) Both A and B
Q: Which of the following is/ are the drawbacks of Ring Topology?
A) Failure of one computer, can affect the whole network
B) Adding or removing the computers disturbs the network activity.
C) If the central hub fails, the whole network fails to operate.
D) Both of A and B
Hardware Conecpet
Q: Any physical components of a computer system that we can see and touch is
(a) Software
(b) Peripheral device
(c) hardware
(d) CPU
Q: The system unit that contains the most vital part of the personal computer is called
(a) CPU
(b) BIOS chip
(c) Motherboard
(d) Monitor
Q: A motherboard consists of
(a) CPU
(b) RAM and BIOS chip
(c) Expansion slots
(d) Heat sink/fan
(e) All of the above
Q: RAM is an example of:
(a) Secondary memory
(b) Primary memory
(c) Main memory
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
a) Mouse
b) Printer
c) Monitor
d) EXCEL
e) None of these
A computer’s hard disk is __________.
a) an arithmetic and logical unit
b) computer software
c) operating system
d) computer hardware
e) None of these
Q: Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge?
a) Anomaly
b) Shock
c) Spike
d) Virus
e) Splash
Q: Where would you find a magnetic strip?
a) Speakers
b) Credit card
c) Smart card
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are
a) Logical errors
b) Semantic errors
c) Syntax errors
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: A daisy wheel is a type of…?
a) None of these
b) Storage device
c) Pointing device
d) All of the above
e) Printer
Q: A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration is-
a) a converter
b) a component
c) an attachment
d) an adapter
e) Voltmeter
Q: Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
a) Disk
b) Keyboard
c) ALU
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: Travel agents use this computer system when reserving flights.
a) Supercomputer
b) Mainframe computer
c) Personal computer
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: The language that the computer. can understand and execute is called
a) Application software
b) Machine language
c) System program
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: Which of the following is the largest unit of storage?
a) KB
b) GB
c) MB
d) TB
e) None of these
Q: Registers, which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional, are known as
a) PC
b) General purpose register
c) Memory address registers
d) Flags
e) None of these
Q: Magnetic tapes are good storage media for
a) backup and low volume data
b) None of these
c) storing original but low volume data
d) storing original but high volume data
e) backup and high volume data
Q: Example of non-numerical data is
a) All of the above
b) Examination score
c) Bank balance
d) Employee address
e) None of these
Q: A plastic card similar to a credit card but having some memory and a microprocessor embedded within it is
a) Chip card
b) Card punch
c) Magnetic tape
d) None of these
e) Punched paper tape
Q: A is a device that not only provides surge protection but also furnishes your computer with battery backup power during a power outage.
a) surge strip
b) USB
c) UPS
d) battery strip
e) None of these
Q: A hard copy is a term used to describe…?
a) Printed output
b) Writing on a hard board
c) Storing information on the hard disk
d) All of the above
e) None of these
Q: VDU is expanded as .
(a) Visual Display Unit
(b) Virtual Display Unit
(c) Visual Deception Unit
(d) Visual Display University
Q: In computer monitors, CRT stands for .
(a) Cadmium Ray Tube
(b) Cathode Ray Tube
(c) Cathode Ray Twist
(d) Cathode Rim Tube
Q: Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitor has level of power consumption amongst monitors.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) zero
(d) least
Q: LCD is expanded as .
(a) Linear Crystal Display
(b) Liquid Crystal Dialog
(c) Liquid Crystal Display
(d) Liquid Canister Display
Q: LED is expanded as .
(a) Linear Emitting Diode
(b) Light Emitting Diode
(c) Liquid Emitting Diode
(d) Light Emitting Display
Q: The display of LCD monitor is than that of LED monitor.
(a) lighter
(b) heavier
(c) brighter
(d) duller
Q: Height to width ratio of a monitor screen is called .
(a) aspect ratio
(b) length ratio
(c) width ratio
(d) diagonal ratio
Q: Generally, CRT monitors had aspect ratio of .
(a) 16:9
(b) 4:3
(c) 16:10
(d) 1:1
Q: The type of printer which does not hit the paper to produce print is called .
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer
Q: Dot matrix printer belongs to category.
(a) monitor
(b) scanner
(c) non-impact type printer
(d) impact type printer
Q: Full form for SMPS in computer is .
(a) Sync Mode Power Supply
(b) Switch Mode Power Supply
(c) Stake Mode Power Supply
(d) Switch Mode Power Socket
Q: In a desktop computer, produces radio frequency interference.
(a) SMPS
(b) Micro-Processor
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse
Q: HDMI stands for .
(a) Registered Jack 11
(b) High Definition Multimedia Interface
(c) Line Printer Terminal
(d) Universal Serial Bus
Q: The device primarily used to provide hardcopy is the
a) CRT
b) Computer Console
c) Printer
d) Card Reader
Q: Dot-matrix, Deskjet, Inkjet and Laser are all types of which computer peripherals?
a) Printers
b) Software
c) Monitors
d) Keyboards
Q: Laser printer belong to
a) line printer
b) page printer
c) band printer
d) dot matrix printer
Q: A joystick is primarily used for
a) control sound on the screen
b) Computer gaming
c) enter text
d) draw pictures
Q: USB refers to
a) a storage device
b) a processor
c) a port type
d) a serial bus standard
Q: The may also be called the screen or monitor.
a) printer
b) scanner
c) hard disk
d) display
Q: Speed of the printer is limited by the speed of
a) paper movement
b) cartridge used
c) length of paper
d) all of these
Q: The OCR recognizes the of the characters with the help of light source.
a) size
b) shape
c) colour
d) used ink
Q: Modems use transmission.
a) Synchronous
b) Asynchronous
c) timed interval
d) ata
Q: Which monitor would provide the highest level of performance?
a) VGA
b) XGA
c) CGA
d) SVGA
Q: A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:
a) clusters
b) sectors
c) vectors
d) heads
The two major types of computer chips are
a) External memory chip
b) Primary memory chip
c) Microprocessor chip
d) None of these
Q: Your CD-ROM audio cable connects to the:
a) speaker
b) sound card
c) power supply
d) hard drive
Q: Type one PC cards:
a) are used only in desktops
b) are no longer being produced
c) are the thinnest of the PC cards
d) don‟t exist
When you save the following the data would remain intact even after turning off computer?
a) RAM
b) Motherboard
c) Secondary and Storage Device
d) Primary Storage Device
e) None of these
Fax machines and imaging systems are examples of
a) bar-code readers
b) imaging systems
c) scanning devices
d) pen-based systems
e) None of these
Artificial Intelligence
Q: What is Artificial Intelligence?
a) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to make humans more intelligent
b) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to improve the security
c) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to develop intelligent machines
d) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to mine the data
Q: Who is the inventor of Artificial Intelligence?
a) Geoffrey Hinton
b) Andrew Ng
c) John McCarthy
d) Jürgen Schmidhuber
Q: Which of the following is the branch of Artificial Intelligence?
a) Machine Learning
b) Cyber forensics
c) Full-Stack Developer
d) Network Design
Q: What is the goal of Artificial Intelligence?
a) To solve artificial problems
b) To extract scientific causes
c) To explain various sorts of intelligence
d) To solve real-world problems
Q: The High level language …………………. has now become the dominant AI programming language.
A) Ada
B) Lisp
C) AI pro
D) High AI
Q: In AI, a representation of …………………… is a combination of data structures and interpretive procedures that is used in the right way in a program.
A) Knowledge
B) Power
C) Strength
D) Intelligence
Q: ………….. is an environment in which the search takes place.
A) problem place
B) problem instance
C) problem space
D) Non of the above
Q: The fundamental ideas about retrieval that have been developed in AI systems might be termed as ……………… and ……………………
A) Analogy, reasoning
B) Thinking, doing
C) Event, domain
D) Linking, lumping
Q: Robot machine might have cameras and infrared range finders for ………… and various motors of ……….
A) Sensors, Agents
B) Agents, Actuators
C) Actuators, Sensors
D) Sensors, Actuators
Q: ……………….. are rules of thumb that may solve a given problem, but do not guarantee a solution.
A) Strong methods
B) Weak methods
C) Heuristic
D) Probabilistic
Q: ………………. is the primary consideration in designing knowledge-based AI systems.
A) Analogy
B) Efficiency
C) Efficacy
D) Acquisition
Q: The initial state and successor function implicitly define state space of the problem
A) Initial state
B) State space
C) problem space
D) problem place
Q: …………….. are data structures giving “snapshots” of the condition of the problem at each stage of its solution.
A) States
B) Operators
C) Heuristic
D) None of the above
Q: ………………. are means for transforming the problem from one state to another.
A) States
B) Operators
C) Heuristic
D) None of the above
Q: ………….. is called the father of AI.
A) James C Gosling
B) Dennis Ritchie
C) Alan Turing
D) Isaac Newton
Q: In AI ………………………. is a combination of data structures and interpretive procedures.
A) Knowledge
B) Meta-knowledge
C) Artificial Knowledge
D) Performance
Q: The …………………… approach uses the knowledge of mathematics and engineering.
A) rationalist
B) Top-down
C) bottom-up
D) push-pop approach
Q: We also use knowledge about what we know, called ……………………..
A) Meta-Knowledge
B) Performance Knowledge
C) Standard knowledge
D) Specific knowledge
Q: The Artificial Intelligence is concerned with designing intelligent computer systems that exhibit intelligent characteristics expressed by …………………..
A) Functional behavior
B) Human behavior
C) Human brain
D) Statistical analysis
Q: ………………… includes what we know about our own performance as cognitive processors.
A) Meta-Knowledge
B) Performance Knowledge
C) Standard knowledge
D) Specific knowledge
Q: State whether the following true or false.
i) AI is used in diverse fields like space exploration, robotics.
ii) AI is used for military purpose
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-False
D) i-False, ii-True
Q: Which of the following is not an application of artificial intelligence?
a) Face recognition system
b) Chatbots
c) LIDAR
d) DBMS
Q: The goals of AI systems can be described in terms of cognitive tasks like
A) Recognizing objects
B) Answering questions
C) Manipulating robotic devices
D) All of the above
Q: _________ number of informed search method are there in Artificial Intelligence.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Q: ………………….. is computerized advice-giver, that is capable of reasoning but which is usually confined to a rather narrow field of knowledge.
A) Expert system
B) Knowledge system
C) Common system
D) Communication system
Q: ………………. involves relating something new to what we already know in a psychologically complex way.
A) Knowledge Acquisition
B) Knowledge retrieval
C) Reasoning
D) Meta-level reasoning
Q: Which of the following is not the commonly used programming language for Artificial Intelligence?
a) Perl
b) Java
c) PROLOG
d) LISP
Q: The total number of logical symbols in AI are ____________
a) There are 3 logical symbols
b) There are 5 logical symbols
c) Number of logical symbols are based on the input
d) Logical symbols are not used
Q: Which of the following are the approaches to Artificial Intelligence?
a) Applied approach
b) Strong approach
c) Weak approach
d) All of the mentioned
Q: Face Recognition system is based on which type of approach?
a) Weak AI approach
b) Applied AI approach
c) Cognitive AI approach
d) Strong AI approach
Q: Which of the following can improve the performance of an AI agent?
a) Perceiving
b) Learning
c) Observing
d) All of the mentioned
Q: What is the name of the Artificial Intelligence system developed by Daniel Bobrow?
a. program known as BACON
b. system known as STUDENT
c. program known as SHRDLU
d. system known as SIMD
Q: In Which Conference John Mccarthy First Coined The Term “Artificial Intelligence” In 1956 ?
a. Dartmouth Conference.
b. Acm Conference
c. Aaai Conference
d. Aaai Conference
Q: Which Programming Language Is Best Choice For Development Of Ai ?
a. Python
b. Java
c. Dot .Net
d. Mat-Lab
Q: There Are How Many Steps In Machine Learning To Solve A Problem ?
a. 3 Steps
b. 5 Steps
c. 7 Steps
d. 9 Steps
Q: In Supervised Learning There Is Given ?
a. Both Inputs & Outputs
b. Only Inputs
c. Only Outputs
d. None
Q: In Unsupervised Learning There Is Given.
a. Both Inputs & Outputs
b. Only Inputs
c. Only Outputs
d. None
30. In Supervised Learning Type Of Data Is.
a. Labeled Data
b. Unlabeled Data
c. Both
d. None
Q: In Unsupervised Learning Type Of Data Is.
a. Labeled Data
b. Unlabeled Data
c. Both
d. None
Q: Which Algorithm Is Example Of Supervised Learning ?
a. K-Nearest Neighbors
b. K-Means
c. Both
d. None
Q: Which Algorithm Is Example Of Unsupervised Learning ?
a. K-Means
b. K-Nearest Neighbors
c. Both
d. None
Q: What Is Date The Birth Of Ai ?
a. 1958
b. 1965
c. 1956
d. 1959
Q: What Is The Name Of First Research Lab For Ai ?
a. Allen Institute Of Ai
b. Robotics Laboratory
c. First Al Laboratory
d. Turing Institute
Q: In Which Year First Ai Research Lab Developed ?
a. 1956
b. 1959
c. 1965
d. 1960
Q: First Robot Was Introduced To General Motors Assembly Line In ?
a. 1960
b. 1959
c. 1965
d. 1956
Q: First Robot Was Introduced In 1960 To Which Assembly Line ?
a. Ai Laboratory
b. General Motor’s Assembly Line
c. Allen Institute Of Ai
d. Turing Institute
Q: The First Al Chat-Bot Name Which Introduced In 1961 ?
a. Alexa
b. Siri
c. Eliza
d. Cortana
Q: Who Won 2005 Darpa Grand Challenge ?
a. Stanford Team
b. Red Team
c. Team Gray
d. Team Terramax
Q: In LISP, the function returns the list that results after the first element is removed (the rest f the list), is
a. car
b. last
c. cons
d. cdr
Q: Which of the following contains the output segments of Artificial Intelligence programming?
a. Printed language and synthesized speech
b. Manipulation of physical object
c. Locomotion
d.All of the mentioned
Q: LISP was created by?
a. John McCarthy
b. Marvin Minsky
c. Alan Turing
d. Allen Newell and Herbert Simon
Q: Expert Ease was developed under the direction of
a. John McCarthy
b. Donald Michie
c. Lofti Zadeh
d. Alan Turing
Q: An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
a. SHRDLU
b. SIMD
c. BACON
d. STUDENT
Q: MLMenu, a natural language interface for the TI Explorer, is similar to
a. Ethernet
b. NaturalLink
c. PROLOG
d. The Personal Consultant
System Analysis & Design
Q. 1 …………………………. is an important factor of management information system.
A) System
B) Data
C) Process
D) All
Q. Which are the following is / are the level(s) of documentation?
A) Documentation for management
B) Documentation for user
C) Documentation for data processing department
D) All of the above
Q: ………………………….. level supply information to strategic tier for the use of top management.
A) Operational
B) Environmental
C) Competitive
D) Tactical
Q: In a DFD external entities are represented by a
A) Rectangle
B) Ellipse
C) Diamond shaped box
D) Circle
Q: …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceive value in current or prospective decisions.
A) System
B) Information
C) Technology
D) Service
Q: Use the new system as the same time as the old system to compare the results. This is known as ……
A) Procedure Writing
B) Simultaneous processing
C) Parallel Operation
D) File Conversion
Q: Decision making model was proposed by ………………….
A) Harry Goode
B) Herbert A Simon
C) Recon Michal
D) None of this
Q: A data flow can
A) Only emanate from an external entity
B) Only terminate in an external entity
C) May emanate and terminate in an external entity
D) May either emanate or terminate in an external entity but not both
Q. 9 …………… can be defined as most recent and perhaps the most comprehensive technique for solving computer problems.
A) System Analysis
B) System Data
C) System Procedure
D) System Record
Q: SDLC stands for
A) System Development Life Cycle
B) Structure Design Life Cycle
C) System Design Life Cycle
D) Structure development Life Cycle
Q. ………… is a sort of blueprint of the system Development Effort.
A) MDP
B) DMP
C) MPD
D) DPM
Q: Data store in a DFD represents.
A) a sequential file
B) a disk store
C) a repository of data
D) a random access memory
Q: …………… system consists of programs, data files and documentation
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None of the above
Q: …………… is a good example of deterministic system.
A) Life cycle
B) Computer Program
C) Software Program
D) None of the above
Q: The main ingredient of the report documenting the ……………… is the cost benefit analysis.
A) System Analysis
B) Feasibility Study
C) System Analyst
D) System Design
Q: A data flow can
A) Only a data store
B) Only leave a data store
C) Enter or leave a data Store
D) Either enter or leave a data store but not both
Q: Changing the relationship with and services provided to customers in such a way that they will not think of changing suppliers is called ………….
A) Lock in customers
B) Lock out customers
C) Lock in competitors
D) Lock out competitors
Q: …………… can be defined as data that has been processed into a form that is meaningful to the recipient and is of real or perceived value in current or prospective decisions.
A) Information
B) Data collection
C) Internal data
D) Sample data
Q: Increased volume of sales is an example of ………….…. Benefit. Reduction of bad debts is an example of ………..
A) Tangible, Intangible
B) Tangible, Tangible
C) Intangible, Tangible
D) Intangible, Intangible
Q: A data cannot flow between a store and
i) a store ii) a process iii) an external entity
A) i and iii
B) i and ii
C) ii and iii
D) ii
Q. A ……………… system in no more than idea.
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None
Q. Design Phase consists of …………………….
Q: Identity the functions to be performed
Q: Design the input/output and file design
Q: Defining basic parameters for system design
A) 1 & 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1, 2 & 3
Q: A context diagram
A) Describes the context of a system
B) is a DFD which gives an overview of the system
C) is a detailed description of a system
D) is not used in drawing a detailed DFD
Q. HIPO stand for
A) Hierarchy input process output
B) Hierarchy input plus output
C) Hierarchy plus input process output
D) Hierarchy input output Process
Q: Statement of scope and objectives, opportunities and performance criteria ………….
A) Problem definition
B) System analysis
C) System Design
D) Documentation
Q: Information can be categorized into …………….
Q: Environmental information
Q: Competitive information
Q: Government information
Q: Internal information
A) 1, 2 & 3
B) 1, 2 & 4
C) 2, 3 & 4
D) 1, 3 & 4
Q: System Development process is also called as ……………..
A) System Development Life Cycle
B) System Life Cycle
C) Both A and B
D) System Process Cycle
Q: The output of problem definition stage is ……………..
A) Master Development Plan
B) Terms of reference
C) Feasibility report
D) Final product
Q: Advantages of system flowcharts ………………….
A) Effective communication
B) Effective analysis
C) Queasier group or relationships
D) All A, B, C
Q: Based on the identification of objectives, input, output and file content, the vital document is called …
A) System Definition
B) System Document
C) System Requirement Document
D) System Subject
Q: A context diagram is used
A) as the first step in developing a detailed DFD of a system
B) in systems analysis of very complex systems
C) as an aid to system design
D) as an aid to programmer
Q: Which of the following is/are the sources for project requests?
A) Request from Department managers
B) Request from senior executives
C) Request from system Analyst
D) All of the above
Q: DDS stands for …………………
A) Data Data Systems
B) Data Digital System
C) Data Dictionary Systems
D) Digital Data Service
Q: ………….. Phase is a time consuming phase and yet a very crucial phase
A) Feasibility Study
B) Requirement Phase
C) Analysis Phase
D) Testing Phase
Q: A DFD is normally leveled as
A) It is a good idea in design
B) It is recommended by many experts
C) it is easy to do it
D) It is easier to read and understand a number of smaller DFDs than one large DFD
Q: ………………. is responsible for all aspects of data processing, operation research, organization and method, system analysis and design investments.
A) Management Services Director
B) Data Processing Manager
C) Computer Manager
D) Both B and C
Q: ……………… is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to be taken.
A) Decision tables
B) Decision tree
C) Decision Method
D) Decision Data
Q: In ……………… system the interaction between various subsystems cannot be defined with certainty
A) Open System
B) Closed System
C) Deterministic System
D) Probabilistic System
Q. State True or False.
Q: Term of reference is the final output of Feasibility Study
Q: Design specification report is the final output of System Analysis
A) 1-true, 2-true
B) 1-false, 2-true
C) 1-true, 2-false
D) 1-false, 2-false
Q. The key considerations involved in the feasibility analysis is include
i) Economical ii) Technical iii) Behavioral iv) Personal
A) i, ii, iv
B) i, ii, iii
C) ii, iii, iv
D) All of the above
Q: The rate of ……………. Is always an important factor for management especially in relation to the rate of return
A) Cost
B) Benefit
C) Sales
D) Investment
Q: Which of the following is / are the Characteristics of information?
A) Accuracy and Relevance
B) Form of information and Timeliness
C) Completeness and Purpose
D) All A, B & C
Q: The data Flow Diagram is the basic component of …………… system
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None of the above
Q: State True or False.
i) Master Development Plan basically is a schedule of various applications to be comprised.
ii) It consists of start and finish dates of a system analysis, design implementation and maintenance activities.
A) i-True, ii-True
B) i-False, ii-True
C) i-True, ii-False
D) i-False, ii-False
Q: The Key considerations involved in the feasibility analysis is / are ……………….
A) Economic
B) Technical
C) Behavioral
D) A, B, C
Q: Data cannot flow between two data stores because
A) it is not allowed in DFD
B) a data store is a passive repository of data
C) data can get corrupted
D) they will get merged
Q: …………………… is a schedule of various applications to be computerized.
A) Materials planning
B) Master development Plan
C) Manufacturing organization
D) None of the above
Q: ……………. Costs for a computer based information system include the salaries of the system analysts and computer programmers. ………… costs for a computer based information system include the salaries of the computer operator and other data processing personnel.
A) Development, Development
B) Development, Operating
C) Operating, Development
C) Operating, Operating
Q: The characteristics of well designed system are
a) Practical b) Effective c) Secure d) Reliable e) Flexible f) Economical
A) a, b, c and d
B) a, c, d and e
C) a, b, c, d and e
D) a, b, c, d, e and f
Q: …………….. gives defining the flow of the data through and organization or a company or series of tasks that may or may not represent computerized processing.
A) System process
B) System flowchart
C) System design
D) Structured System
Q: ……………….. includes review of the existing procedures and information flow.
A) Feasibility Study
B) Feasibility report
C) System Design
D) System analysis
Q: A rectangle in a DFD represents
A) a process
B) a data store
C) an external entity
D) an input unit
Q: …………….. refers to the collection of information pertinent to systems Project.
A) Data transfer
B) Data gathering
C) Data Embedding
D) Data Request
Q: ………………….. means coordinated effort, to communicate the information of the system written form.
A) System documentation
B) Resource required
C) Development schedule
D) User Document
Q: MDP stands for
A) Master Development Plan
B) Master Design Program
C) Mandatory Database Program
D) Master Database Plan
Q: External Entities may be a
A) Source of input data only
B) Source of input data or destination of results
C) Destination of results only
D) Repository of data
Q: …………………. is a group of interested components working together towards a common goal by accepting inputs and producing outputs in an organized transformation process.
A) System
B) Network
C) Team
D) System Unit
Q: To create vehicle of information to provide evidence in the development process and to monitor the process. This is one of the objectives of
A) Analysis
B) Design
C) Development
D) Documentation
Q: A …………. System is no more than idea
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) All of the above
Q: By an external entity we mean a
A) Unit outside the system being designed which can be controlled by an analyst.
B) Unit outside the system whose behavior is independent of the system being designed
C) A unit external to the system being designed
D) A unit which is not part of a DFD
SQL Server
Q: …………………… is the full form of SQL.
A) Standard Query Language
B) Sequential Query Language
C) Structured Query Language
D) Server Side Query Language
Q: SQL Server 2005 NOT includes the following system database ………….
A) tempdb Database
B) Master Database
C) Model Database
D) sqldb Database
Q: SQL Server stores index information in the ………………… system table.
A) sysindexes
B) systemindexes
C) sysind
D) sysindexes
Q: ………………… is a read-only database that contains system objects that are included with SQL Server 200Q:
A) Resource Database
B) Master Database
C) Model Database
D) msdb Database
Q: The SQL Server services includes …………………
A) SQL server agent
B) Microsoft distribution transaction coordinator
C) Both a & b
D) None of the above
Q: …………………. is a utility to capture a continuous record of server activity and provide auditing capability.
A) SQL server profile
B) SQL server service manager
C) SQL server setup
D) SQL server wizard
Q: The query used to remove all references for the pubs and newspubs databases from the system tables is ……………………..
A) DROP DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
B) DELETE DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
C) REMOVE DATABASE pubs, newpubs;
D) DROP DATABASE pubs and newpubs;
Q: …………………. clause specifies the groups into which output rows are to be placed and, if aggregate functions are included in the SELECT clause.
A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP
C) GROUP BY
D) GROUP IN
Q: ……………… are predefined and maintained SQL Server where users cannot assign or directly change the values.
A) Local Variables
B) Global Variables
C) Assigned Variables
D) Direct Variables
Q: Microsoft SQL Server NOT uses which of the following operator category?
A) Bitwise Operator
B) Unary Operator
C) Logical Operator
D) Real Operator
Q: ……………………. are predefined and maintained SQL Server and users cannot assign or directly change the values.
A) Global variables
B) Local Variables
C) Integer Variables
D) Floating Variables
Q: A local variable is shown ……………………… preceding its name.
A) One @ symbol
B) Two @@ symbol
C) One # symbol
D) Two ## symbol
Q: Constraint checking can be disabled on existing ……….. and …………. constraints so that any data you modify or add to the table is not checked against the constraint.
A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY
C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY
D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY
Q: ……………. and ………………. are the Transact – SQL control-of-flow key words.
A) Continue, Stop
B) Break, Stop
C) Continue, While
D) While, Going to
Q: The type of constraint …………………… specifies data values that are acceptable in a column.
A) DEFAULT
B) CHECK
C) PRIMARY
D) UNIQUE
Q: The ………………… constraint defines a column or combination of columns whose values match the primary key of the same or another table.
A) DEFAULT
B) CHECK
C) PRIMARY
D) FOREIGN KEY
Q: The control-of-flow statement ………………… defines conditional, and optionally, alternate execution when a condition is FALSE.
A) WHILE
B) WAITFOR
C) IF……..ELSE
D) BEGIN………. END
Q: In SQL Server, ………………… is based on relationships between foreign keys and primary keys or between foreign keys and unique keys.
A) Entity integrity
B) Domain integrity
C) Referential integrity
D) User-defined integrity
Q: When a …………….. clause is used, each item in the select list must produce a single value for each group.
A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP
C) GROUP BY
D) GROUP IN
Q: MS SQL Server uses a variant of SQL called T-SQL, or Transact SQL, an implementation of ……………… with some extensions.
A) MS SQL Server
B) Tabular Data Set
C) SQL-92
D) Tabular Data Stream
Q: DML is provided for
A) Description of logical structure of database
B) Addition of new structure in the database system.
C) Manipulation & processing of database
D) Definition of physical structure of database system
Q:’AS’ clause is used in SQL for
A) Selection operation
B) Rename Operation
C) Join operation
D) Projection Operation
Q: Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) values
B) distinct values
C) groups
D) columns
Q: The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
A) Alter
B) Update
C) Cteate
D) Select
Q: Which of the following is correct.
A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates
B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation
C) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
D) None of the above
Q: Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?
A) PROJECTION
B) SELECTION
C) UNION
D) JOIN
Q: Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY=NULL;
D) None of the above
Q: Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
A) CHARACTER
B) NUMERIC
C) FLOAT
D) All of the above
Q: Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)?
A) SELECT ALL FROM BOOK
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
C) SELECT SUB FROM BOOK
D) All of the above
Q: In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands?
A) RENAME
B) REVOKE
C) GRANT
D) UPDATE
Q: In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database?
A) REMOVE FUNCTION
B) DELETE FUNCTION
C) DROP FUNCTION
D) ERASE FUNCTION
Q: In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicate rows
A) SELECT DISTINCT
B) SELECT UNIQUE
C) SELECT DIFFERENT
D) All of the above
Q: Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) Values
B) Distinct values
C) Groups
D) Columns
Q: Composite key is made up of …………….
A) One column
B) One super key
C) One foreign key
D) Two or more columns
Q: What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?
A) Grant
B) Revoke
C) Execute
D) Run
Q: Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes it?
A) CMD
B) OPEN
C) EXECUTE
D) RUN
Q: What is a DATABLOCK?
A) Set of Extents
B) Set of Segments
C) Smallest Database storage unit
D) Set of blocks
Q: If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the hierarchy between them?
A) There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups.
B) The group that is right ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.
C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.
D) The group that is left ranks higher than the group that is to the right.
Q: Which of the following types of triggers can be fired on DDL operations?
A) Instead of Trigger
B) DML Trigger
C) System Trigger
D) DDL Trigger
Q: What operator performs pattern matching?
A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator
Q: DROP is a ……………. statement in SQL.
A. Query
B. Embedded SQL
C. DDL
D. DCL
Q: The keyword to eliminate duplicate rows from the query result in SQL is.
A. DISTINCT
B. NO DUPLICATE
C. UNIQUE
D. None of the above
Q: Which of the following aggregate function does not ignore nulls in its results?
A. COUNT
B. COUNT(*)
C. MAX
D. MIN
Q: In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done using
A. DISTINCT
B. UNIQUE
C. NULL
D. EXISTS
Q: ……………. operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.
A. Like
B. Compare
C. Between
D. In
Q: The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
A. DML
B. DDL
C. VDL
D. SDL
Q: The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
A. The data definition language(DDL)
B. The data manipulation language(DML)
C. The database administrator(DBA)
D. A query language
Q: A DBMS query language is designed to
A. Support end users who use English-like commands.
B. Support in the development of complex applications software.
C. Specify the structure of a database.
D. All of the above
Q: It is possible to define a schema completely using.
A. VDL and DDL
B. DDL and DML
C. SDL and DDL
D. VDL and DML
Q: Which of the following is correct.
A. a SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
B. SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
C. a SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations.
D. None of these.
Q: Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?
A. =
B. LIKE
C. BETWEEN
D. All of the above
Q: To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is.
A. UPDATE
B. DROP
C. ALTER
D. DELETE
Q: The ………… operator is used to compare the value to a list of literals values that that have been specified.
A. BETWEEN
B. ANY
C) IN
D) ALL
Q: ………… function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.
A. POWER
B. MOD
C. ROUND
D. REMAINDER
Q: A data manipulation command the combines the record from one or more tables is called.
A) SELECT
B. PROJECT
C. JOIN
D. PRODUCT
Q: DDL stands for
A. Data definition language
B. Data description language
C. Data design languages
D. Database dictionary languages.
Q: The DDL is used to specify the ……..
A. Conceptual schema
B. Internal schema
C. Both
D. None
Q: Which is used for data retrieval from the database?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. SDL
D. VDL
Q: Which is used to specify the user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. SDL
D. VDL
Q: Which command are included in a general purpose programming languages?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. DSL
D. VDL
Data Base Management System
Q: DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
A) Keys
B) Translators
C) Program
D) Language Activity
Q: In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
A) Relations
B) Domains
C) Queries
D) All of the above
Q: In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
A) Entity
B) Attribute
C) Relationship
D) Notation
Q: DFD stands for
A) Data Flow Document
B) Data File Diagram
C) Data Flow Diagram
D) Non of the above
Q: A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
A) Hierarchical schema
B) Network schema
C) Relational Schema
D) All of the above
Q: ……………… table store information about database or about the system.
A) SQL
B) Nested
C) System
D) None of these
Q: …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs.
A) Instance
B) Schema
c) Program
D) Super Key
Q: ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
A) Select
B) Group-by
C) Having
D) Order by
Q: A logical schema
A) is the entire database
B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D) All of the above
Q: ………………… is a full form of SQL.
A) Standard query language
B) Sequential query language
C) Structured query language
D) Server side query language
Q: A relational database developer refers to a record as
A. a criteria
B. a relation
C. a tuple
D. an attribute
Q: ………. keyword is used to find the number of values in a column.
A. TOTAL
B. COUNT
C. ADD
D. SUM
Q: An advantage of the database management approach is
A. data is dependent on programs
B. data redundancy increases
C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
D. none of the above
Q: The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is called as
A. schema
B. instance of the database
C. data domain
D. independence
Q: Data independence means
A. data is defined separately and not included in programs.
B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
D. both B and C
Q: A ……… is used to define overall design of the database
A. schema
B. application program
C. data definition language
D. code
Q: Key to represent relationship between tables is called
A. primary key
B. secondary key
C. foreign key
D. none of the above
Q: Grant and revoke are ……. statements.
A. DDL
B. TCL
C. DCL
D. DML
Q: DBMS helps achieve
A. Data independence
B. Centralized control of data
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
20) ………. command can be used to modify a column in a table
A. alter
B. update
C. set
D. create
Q: The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ……………..
A) Alternate Key
B) Primary Key
C) Foreign Key
D) None of the above
Q: …………….. is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows.
A) Unique predicate
B) Like Predicate
C) Null predicate
D) In predicate
Q: To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
A) NODUPLICATE
B) ELIMINATE
C) DISTINCT
D) None of these
Q: State true or false
i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
A) i-true, ii-false
B) i-false, ii-true
C) i-true, ii-true
D) i-false, ii-false
Q: DCL stands for
A) Data Control Language
B) Data Console Language
C) Data Console Level
D) Data Control Level
Q: …………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.
A) Normalization
B) Generalization
C) Specialization
D) None of the above
Q: A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
A) Weak entity
B) Strong entity
C) Non attributes entity
D) Dependent entity
Q: …………….. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.
A) Sub string
B) Drop Table
C) Predict
D) Predicate
Q: ………………… is preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored Procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
Q: The number of tuples in a relation is called its …………. While the number of attributes in a relation is called it’s ………………..
A) Degree, Cardinality
B) Cardinality, Degree
C) Rows, Columns
D) Columns, Rows
Q: The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to get it is
A. Procedural DML
B. Non-Procedural DML
C. Procedural DDL
D. Non-Procedural DDL
Q: Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language
Q: The database schema is written in
A. HLL
B. DML
C. DDL
D. DCL
Q: The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a
A. module
B. relational model
C. schema
D. sub schema
Q: The relational model feature is that there
A. is no need for primary key data
B. is much more data independence than some other database models
C. are explicit relationships among records.
D. are tables with many dimensions
Q: Which one of the following statements is false?
A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary
C. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
D. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.
Q: Which of the following are the properties of entities?
A. Groups
B. Table
C. Attributes
D. Switchboards
Q: Which database level is closest to the users?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Physical
D. Conceptual
Q: Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
A. Passive and active
B. Total and partial
C. Simple and Complex
D. All of the above
20) …….. data type can store unstructured data
A. RAW
B. CHAR
C. NUMERIC
D. VARCHAR
Q: State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator.
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a relation.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False
Q: …………… database is used as template for all databases created.
A) Master
B) Model
C) Tempdb
D) None of the above
Q: One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity subsystem is to ensure that only valid values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred to as
A) Data Security
B) Domain access
C) Data Control
D) Domain Integrity
Q: ………………….. operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first relation.
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Full Join
D) Inner Join
Q: Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?
A) Join
B) Semi-Join
C) Assignment
D) Project
Q: Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the DBMS ………….. Duplication and ensures the consistency and validity of the database.
A) Increases
B) Skips
C) Does not reduce
D) Reduces
Q: Which of the following is/are the DDL statements?
A) Create
B) Drop
C) Alter
D) All of the above
Q: In snapshot, …………………. clause tells oracle how long to wait between refreshes.
A) Complete
B) Force
C) Next
D) Refresh
Q: ……………… defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
A) Column
B) Constraint
C) Index
D) Trigger
Q: For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters.
ii) _ matches exactly one character.
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
Q: The relational model is based on the concept that data is organized and stored in two-dimensional tables called ……………………….
A) Fields
B) Records
C) Relations
D) Keys
Q: ……………….. contains information that defines valid values that are stored in a column or data type.
A) View
B) Rule
C) Index
D) Default
Q: Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement?
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values>
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of values>
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both of them
D) None of them
Q: ………………. First proposed the process of normalization.
A) Edgar. W
B) Edgar F. Codd
C) Edward Stephen
D) Edward Codd
Q: For using a specific database …………… command is used.
A) use database
B) database name use
C) Both A &B
D) None of them
Q: Which of the following is not comparison operator?
A) <>
B) <
C) =<
D) >=
Q: An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for automatic ………… to the target data.
A) programming
B) functioning
C) navigation
D) notification
Q: ………………… is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations & maintains consistency across the relations.
A) Entity Integrity Constraints
B) Referential Integrity Constraints
C) Domain Integrity Constraints
D) Domain Constraints
E) Key Constraints
Q: ……………..specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate.
A) GROUP BY Clause
B) HAVING Clause
C) FROM Clause
D) WHERE Clause
Q: Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a …………… constraint.
A) Local Key
B) Primary Key
C) Composite Key
D) Foreign Key
Q: Processed data is called ………………..
A) Raw data
B) Information
C) Useful data
D) Source
Q: …………….. is a utility to capture a continuous record of server activity and provide auditing capability.
A) SQL server Profile
B) SQL server service manager
C) SQL server setup
D) SQL server wizard.
Q: Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called a
A) record
B) title
C) list
D) string
Q: …………. contains data assisting day to day activities of the organization.
A) Control database
B) Operational database
C) Strategic database
D) Sequential database
Q: ………………… approach reduces time and effort required for design and lesser risk in database management.
A) Single global database
B) Top-down approach
C) Multiple databases
D) None of the above
Q: HSAM stands for ……….
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method
B) Hierarchic Standard Access Method
C) Hierarchic Sequential and Method
D) Hierarchic Standard and Method
Q: SQL server stores index information in the ………… system table
A) syst indexes
B) system indexes
C) sysind
D) sys indexes
Q: The one guideline to be followed while designing the database is
A) A database design may be ambiguous.
B) Unrelated data should be in the same table so that updating the data will be easy.
C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy.
D) An entity should not have attributes.
Q: Which of the following is not a logical database structure?
A) Chain
B) Network
C) Tree
D) Relational
Q: ……………. is a preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints
B) Stored procedure
C) Triggers
D) Cursors
Q: ………………………. is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.
A) Embedded Programs
B) Dynamic Programs
C) Query Language
D) Static Language Programs
Q: The file in DBMS is called as ……………… in RDBMS.
A) console
B) schema
C) table
D) object
Q: In ………………… , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.
A) hierarchical databases.
B) network databases
C) object oriented databases
D) relational databases
Q: Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
A) 2 NF
B) 3 NF
C) 4 NF
D) BCNF
Q: What operator tests column for the absence of data?
A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator
Q: Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in order to hide or protect information.
A) Schema
B) Sub-schema
C) Non-schema
D) Non-sub schema
Q: Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file records?
A) File blocks
B) File operators
C) File headers
D) None of these
Q: A ……………….. DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and network server.
A) Network
B) Relational
C) Client Server
D) Hierarchical
Q: The ……………….. refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A) database hierarchy
B) data organization
C) data sharing
D) data model
Q: …………….. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.
A) trigger
B) assertion
C) durability
D) integrity constraint
Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?
A. Table
B. Tree like structure
C. Complex logical relationship
D. Records
Q: Field is otherwise called as ……… of the record
A. data item
B. data type
C. value
D. variable
Q: A table can have only one
A. Secondary key
B. Alternate key
C. Unique key
D. Primary key
Q: A field can be called as ……….. in relation context.
A. random file
B. direct file
C. attribute
D. tuple
Q: In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as
A. Number of tuples
B. Number of attributes
C. Number of tables
D. Number of constraints
Q: The …….. is used for creating and destroying table, indexes and other forms of structures.
A. data manipulation language
B. data control language
C. transaction control language
D. data definition language
Q: The view of total database content is
A. Conceptual view
B. Internal view
C. External view
D. Physical view
Q: The ………… refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A. database hierarchy
B. data organization
C. data sharing
D. data model
Q: Architecture of the database can be viewed as
A. two levels
B. four levels
C. three levels
D. one level
Q: …….. introduced the relational database rules.
A. Atul kahate
B. James Gossling
C. EF Codd
D. Dennies Rithchie
Q: In a relational model, relations are termed as
A. Tuples
B. Attributes
C. Tables
D. Rows
Q: When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n) ……..
A. transitive dependency
B. insertion anomaly
C. referential integrity constraint
D. normal form
Q: In the architecture of a database system external level is the
A. physical level
B. logical level
C. conceptual level
D. view level
Q: A functional dependency is a relationship between or among …….
A. tables
B. rows
C. relations
D. attributes
Q: Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
A. data file
B. data record
C. menu
D. bank
Q: ………. is, a table have more than one set of attributes that could be chosen as the key
A. foreign key
B. integrity key
C. relationship
D. candidate key
Q: The database environment has all of the following components except.
A. users
B. separate files
C. database
D. database administrator
Q: The operation of eliminating columns in a table done by …….. operation.
A. Restrict
B. Project
C. Union
D. Divide
Q: The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a
A. module
B. relational model
C. schema
D. sub schema
20) ……. is a condition specified on a database schema and restricts the data that can be stored in an instance of the database.
A. Key Constraint
B. Check Constraint
C. Foreign key constraint
D. integrity constraint
CRID Panchayat Local Operator 2nd Exam Notes
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